JSynon said:
Why did it have to be local?
First of all, a worldwide flood has been scientifically falsified. That means that not only is there no valid evidence for a global flood, the evidence we have specifically disproves a global flood. There are a number of threads over in the Creation and Evolution forum which set out all this evidence. No creationist has ever been able to refute any of it.
In addition to the scientific evidence, we have the historical and cultural evidence. Most Creationist organizations (AiG, ICR, etc) set the flood based on a literal reading of the genealogies (they have to do this in order to maintain their consistency of literal reading). This places the flood right in the middle of at least four major early cultures, the Egyptian, Sumerian, Chinese and the Indus Valley (as an historian, I am only well-read on the Egyptian). These cultures were flourishing before the proposed flood date and after the flood date. Now, some Creationists assert that after the flood, these areas were just repopulated. This is simply not possible. There is no evidence of even a blip in the historical radar of such an event as the complete wiping out of the entire culture and replacement by a handful of foreigners. The culture, writing, language and (here is the kicker) RELIGION is all the same before and after the proposed flood date. Everything about the culture just continues right on as if nothing happened.
Lastly, there is the literal text itself. The term for "the whole earth" is "kol erets", which can mean the actual land, a people, a local area or, in a few instances, the whole planet as they knew it. This term is used hundred of times in the Bible. More than 2/3 of the time, it is used to mean a local area and NOT the whole planet. Further, there is a BETTER phrase in Hebrew which only means the whole planet, and that term is NOT used.
If we read "the whole of the land that we live in" (or a similar phrase, given the context) rather than the "whole earth", the story makes just as much sense.
So, with two different possible translations of the Hebrew, one referring to a local area, which matches with the scientific evidence and which is actually a more common use of the word, the other which has been shown to be not scientifically possible and is a less common usage in Scripture, why would you choose the latter?