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I've been looking at the work of theologian C. John Collins who has some very interesting ideas concerning Eden. He has taken considerable effort to try to identify a geography that makes sense with Genesis' description of Eden:
And the LORD God planted a garden in Eden, in the east, and there he put the man whom he had formed. And out of the ground the LORD God made to spring up every tree that is pleasant to the sight and good for food. The tree of life was in the midst of the garden, and the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. A river flowed out of Eden to water the garden, and there it divided and became four rivers. The name of the first is the Pishon. It is the one that flowed around the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold. And the gold of that land is good; bdellium and onyx stone are there. The name of the second river is the Gihon. It is the one that flowed around the whole land of Cush. And the name of the third river is the Tigris, which flows east of Assyria. And the fourth river is the Euphrates.
(Genesis 2:10-14 ESV)
We know about the Tigris and the Euphrates. What about the Pishon and Gihon? Collins notes that:
Cush may be the land in Africa (Sudan), or it may be the land of the Kassites (a people in western Iran). If it is the land of the Kassites, that points us to Mesopotamia; but what then of the gold of Havilah? There is a known source of gold in Arabia, south of modern Medina; and from near those gold fields a now-dry river once arose, flowing toward the Persian Gulf through the modern Kuwait. Thus we might have the Pishon. If Cush refers to the Kassites, then the Gihon would be a river flowing down from the Zagros Mountains, such as the modern Kerkheh or the Diz plus Karun Rivers.
Then the rivers may have come together in Eden, which would locate it in the Persian Gulf, and flow from there into the garden (which are not synonymous).
I cannot personally vouch for the geographical accuracy of this. Paradoxically, however, accurately identifying the region causes far more trouble for literalist readers than for those who would read Genesis 1-11 as myth. After all, there is nothing that prevents a mythmaker from using accurate geographical details. Just because The Phantom of the Opera uses accurate descriptions of Paris does not make its events any more factual. Indeed, it is precisely a degree of verisimilitude that often makes fiction all the more compelling as fiction.
On the other hand, literalist interpretation interjects a global, catastrophic, surface-altering flood between the actual creation of this Eden and garden and Moses' reception of the story. But if the Tigris and Euphrates and Gihon and Pishon are rivers present after the flood (and indirectly present as a result of it), then how can they be used to describe Eden's location? How could God and Moses use these landmarks to describe the geography of the location if its original geography was completely different? After all, there can be no other purpose for identifiable geographical landmarks to be included in a narrative like this if not for allowing the actual place to be found, or at least hinted at.
Even more intriguingly, how is the land from which the man is made described?
When no bush of the field was yet in the land and no small plant of the field had yet sprung up--for the LORD God had not caused it to rain on the land, and there was no man to work the ground, and a mist was going up from the land and was watering the whole face of the ground-- then the LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature.
(Genesis 2:5-7 ESV)
I will quote Collins at length here:
It also helps to recall the climate of the western Levant: it rains in the fall and winter, and not at all in the summer. At the end of the summer, and with no man to work the ground (by irrigation), the ground is quite dry and barren; after the rains begin to fall, then the plants may spring up. This makes sense, because the text gives a reason for no bush or small plant: "for the Lord God had not caused it to rain" (2:5); this is not at all the same as "he had not yet created them," which is what Driver [arguing for two creation stories amalgated] and Futato [suggesting from a framework view that Gen 2 retells both days 3 and 6] seem to require. Rather, it is in terms of the ordinary experience of the Israelite audience.
We are then able to understand just what Genesis 2:5-8 means: in some land, at the end of the dry season, when the "mist" (or rain cloud) was rising to begin the rains, God formed the first man; he then planted a garden in Eden and moved the man there. Some time after that he made the woman.
This way of reading Genesis 2:5-8 has the advantages of (1) following directly from the discourse relations; (2) using ordinary meanings of words; and (3) making it easy to harmonize Genesis 2:4-25 with the sixth day of Genesis 1. But it also has a strong impact on the amount of time that must have been involved. If the time of year and the absence of man are the reasons for why the plants were "not yet in the land," then this means that the familiar seasonal cycle was in effect; and for this to be so, the seasonal cycle must have been in operation for some number of years. If we want to continue to harmonize the two pericopes, we will not be able to maintain ordinary days in Genesis 1 ...
And the LORD God planted a garden in Eden, in the east, and there he put the man whom he had formed. And out of the ground the LORD God made to spring up every tree that is pleasant to the sight and good for food. The tree of life was in the midst of the garden, and the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. A river flowed out of Eden to water the garden, and there it divided and became four rivers. The name of the first is the Pishon. It is the one that flowed around the whole land of Havilah, where there is gold. And the gold of that land is good; bdellium and onyx stone are there. The name of the second river is the Gihon. It is the one that flowed around the whole land of Cush. And the name of the third river is the Tigris, which flows east of Assyria. And the fourth river is the Euphrates.
(Genesis 2:10-14 ESV)
We know about the Tigris and the Euphrates. What about the Pishon and Gihon? Collins notes that:
Cush may be the land in Africa (Sudan), or it may be the land of the Kassites (a people in western Iran). If it is the land of the Kassites, that points us to Mesopotamia; but what then of the gold of Havilah? There is a known source of gold in Arabia, south of modern Medina; and from near those gold fields a now-dry river once arose, flowing toward the Persian Gulf through the modern Kuwait. Thus we might have the Pishon. If Cush refers to the Kassites, then the Gihon would be a river flowing down from the Zagros Mountains, such as the modern Kerkheh or the Diz plus Karun Rivers.
Then the rivers may have come together in Eden, which would locate it in the Persian Gulf, and flow from there into the garden (which are not synonymous).
I cannot personally vouch for the geographical accuracy of this. Paradoxically, however, accurately identifying the region causes far more trouble for literalist readers than for those who would read Genesis 1-11 as myth. After all, there is nothing that prevents a mythmaker from using accurate geographical details. Just because The Phantom of the Opera uses accurate descriptions of Paris does not make its events any more factual. Indeed, it is precisely a degree of verisimilitude that often makes fiction all the more compelling as fiction.
On the other hand, literalist interpretation interjects a global, catastrophic, surface-altering flood between the actual creation of this Eden and garden and Moses' reception of the story. But if the Tigris and Euphrates and Gihon and Pishon are rivers present after the flood (and indirectly present as a result of it), then how can they be used to describe Eden's location? How could God and Moses use these landmarks to describe the geography of the location if its original geography was completely different? After all, there can be no other purpose for identifiable geographical landmarks to be included in a narrative like this if not for allowing the actual place to be found, or at least hinted at.
Even more intriguingly, how is the land from which the man is made described?
When no bush of the field was yet in the land and no small plant of the field had yet sprung up--for the LORD God had not caused it to rain on the land, and there was no man to work the ground, and a mist was going up from the land and was watering the whole face of the ground-- then the LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature.
(Genesis 2:5-7 ESV)
I will quote Collins at length here:
It also helps to recall the climate of the western Levant: it rains in the fall and winter, and not at all in the summer. At the end of the summer, and with no man to work the ground (by irrigation), the ground is quite dry and barren; after the rains begin to fall, then the plants may spring up. This makes sense, because the text gives a reason for no bush or small plant: "for the Lord God had not caused it to rain" (2:5); this is not at all the same as "he had not yet created them," which is what Driver [arguing for two creation stories amalgated] and Futato [suggesting from a framework view that Gen 2 retells both days 3 and 6] seem to require. Rather, it is in terms of the ordinary experience of the Israelite audience.
We are then able to understand just what Genesis 2:5-8 means: in some land, at the end of the dry season, when the "mist" (or rain cloud) was rising to begin the rains, God formed the first man; he then planted a garden in Eden and moved the man there. Some time after that he made the woman.
This way of reading Genesis 2:5-8 has the advantages of (1) following directly from the discourse relations; (2) using ordinary meanings of words; and (3) making it easy to harmonize Genesis 2:4-25 with the sixth day of Genesis 1. But it also has a strong impact on the amount of time that must have been involved. If the time of year and the absence of man are the reasons for why the plants were "not yet in the land," then this means that the familiar seasonal cycle was in effect; and for this to be so, the seasonal cycle must have been in operation for some number of years. If we want to continue to harmonize the two pericopes, we will not be able to maintain ordinary days in Genesis 1 ...