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Feminism viewed from a Christian perspective: Good? Bad? Something else?

Archivist

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And you are, of course, entitled to your intrepretation of Scripture.
 
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mandyangel

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And you are, of course, entitled to your intrepretation of Scripture.

Thankyou but I'm actually not interpreting them. I believe they mean exactly what they say, I'm not reading into them I am obeying them.
 
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Thankyou but I'm actually not interpreting them. I believe they mean exactly what they say, I'm not reading into them I am obeying them.

No, since Scripture is not entirely clear on this matter you are interpreting Scripture.

For example, Scripture tells us "let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak." Yet Scripture also tells us that "there is no longer...male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."

That allows room for interpretation.

Likewise Scripture tells us "let deacons be husbands of only one wife." Yet there is at least one female deacon mentioned in Scripture, and obviously she could not have been a husband of one wife. That also allows for interpretation.

We also have to look at the role of women in ancient times. It was a patriarchal society; women counted for little. In my view we have to read Scripture in that context.

Again, you are free to your own interpretation.
 
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RealFaith

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It actually doesn't say deacons of one wife, it says bishops of one wife, so you're misinterpreting what the Bible says. Also, by your reasoning, we can also change the meaning of Ephesians 5:25 so that husbands can take less responsibility?
 
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Joykins

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It actually doesn't say deacons of one wife, it says bishops of one wife, so you're misinterpreting what the Bible says. Also, by your reasoning, we can also change the meaning of Ephesians 5:25 so that husbands can take less responsibility?

Actually it says it for BOTH bishops and deacons:

I Tim. 3:

2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

...

12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well.
 
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RealFaith

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Yes, husband of one wife, not wife of one husband. And if a bishop is to be the husband of one wife, then why are there women bishops today? Sorry I forgot, Christians pick and choose what parts of the Bible apply for today
 
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Joykins

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Yes, husband of one wife, not wife of one husband. And if a bishop is to be the husband of one wife, then why are there women bishops today? Sorry I forgot, Christians pick and choose what parts of the Bible apply for today

It seems somewhat pertinent to ask also why there are SINGLE bishops today?
 
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It actually doesn't say deacons of one wife, it says bishops of one wife, so you're misinterpreting what the Bible says.

No, I'm quoting the Bible directly. The Bible says "let deacons be husbands of only one wife." You are the one who is incorrect.

My point in quoting this was that the Bible also tells us that Phoebe, a woman, was a deacon. Yet obviously she could not have been the "husband of only one wife."

Also, by your reasoning, we can also change the meaning of Ephesians 5:25 so that husbands can take less responsibility?

All Ephesians 5:25 says is "Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her." I think that husbands should love their wives--why would I want to change that?
 
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Joykins

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Because the majority of professing believers don't even follow the Bible.

I'm just saying that many people interpret this to mean that a bishop (or possibly deacon) must be a man, but there is just as much evidence that it means that the bishop (or deacon) must be married, or faithful to their spouse, or not divorced and remarried, or not polygamous. The gendered part might be an assumption rather than a command.
 
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RealFaith

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First of all, the word "deacon" διάκονος (diakonos) and its cognates occur 31 times in the NT and is used in many different ways. Paul calls himself a minister (diakonos) of the gospel in Col. 1:23, 25. Paul went to Jerusalem to serve (diakonos) the saints, (Rom. 15:25). Mary spoke to the servants (diakonos) at the wedding in Cana (John 2:5). It is used of serving tables (Luke 17:8 and Acts 6:2). Jesus came not to be served, but to serve (diakonos), (Mark 10:45). The government is called a minister (diakonos) of God (Rom. 13:4). Tychicus is a minister (diakonos) of the Lord (Col. 4:7) as is Timotheus (1 Thess. 3:2).

Rom. 16:1 says, "I commend to you our sister Phoebe, who is a servant (diakonos) of the church which is at Cenchrea." Many argue that since Pheobe is called a deacon, then it means women are eligible to hold the formal office of deacon. But this is not conclusive at all. Phoebe is simply called a servant (diakonon) which can be rendered differently in different Bibles: "minister" (Darby, YLT), "servant" (ASV, ESV, HCSB, ISV, KJV, NASB, NIV, NKJV), "helper" (NCV), "deacon" (NLT, NRSV), and "deaconess" (RSV).

The term "diakonos" is used of an office with special requirements that women cannot meet. "Deacons likewise must be men of dignity, not double-tongued, or addicted to much wine or fond of sordid gain," (1 Tim. 3:8). And, "Let deacons be husbands of only one wife [lit. one woman man'] and good managers of their children and their own households," (1 Tim. 3:12). See also Phil. 1:1.

So, we can conclude that there is a broad sense of how the term is used regarding being a servant, a minister, a helper, etc. We can also conclude that there is a special requirement for the office of deacon that limits eligibility to men. This requirement is that deacons be the husband of one wife and good managers of their children and households. Also, we must note that we see the same criteria here as we do for elders and bishops. It is quite apparent that there is a special office of Deacon that is intended for men only.
 
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Interesting that you are now saying that Scripture says that "deacons be the husband of one wife" when just a few posts ago you informed me that I was "misinterpreting what the Bible says" when I said the same thing. I guess you don't appologize for such statements.

You now say that we can reach certain conclusions. You are correct in that many who read that will reach the same conclusion that you reached. However many others read those same passages and reach conclusions that differ with your conclusion. That is why I said earlier that you are cetainly entitled to your interpretation of Scripture. However, I am likewise entitled to my interpretation.
 
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RealFaith

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Did God have any female priests in the Old Testament? No He didn't.
 
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Prophetess = non priest and non pastor.

There was no such office as pastor in the Old Testament. The New Testament provides for two leadership offices in the church, elders and deacons, but not pastors.
 
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Joykins

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Prophetess = non priest and non pastor.

Old Testament priesthood was a hereditary office. You could not achieve it, only be born into it.

Prophet(ess) on the other hand is a direct calling from God.
 
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Prophetess = no pastor and no priest.

Again, the New Testament provides for two leadership offices in the church, elders and deacons, but not pastors or priests.

We know that there was at least one female deacon.
 
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Joykins

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Again, the New Testament provides for two leadership offices in the church, elders and deacons, but not pastors or priests.

We know that there was at least one female deacon.

and most likely a female apostle.
 
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