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"Fatal Flaw" in predestinary theory

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frumanchu

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"Responsible Grace" theology has no accounting for the Biblical concept of covenant. Statements like the fact that not all who were called Israel were truly Israel are completely ignored. Statements like those from Christ that describe the Pharisees as "whitewashed sepulchres" are cast aside.

"Responsible Grace" is strictly focused on rigid externalism. It has been explicitly stated by its proponents that it is not possible for a person to appear saved outwardly but not actually be saved inwardly. This directly contradicts the above Scriptural statements, but to admit such things is to remove the ability for "Responsible Grace" advocates to manipulate numerous verses into prooftexts supporting its core doctrine: the full apostasy of believers.

Make no mistake about it; lost salvation is the core fundamental driving doctrine of "Responsible Grace" theology and has been for several years. All its doctrinal distinctives trace both logically and historically back to this one fundamental doctrine.
 
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heymikey80

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OK: QUOTES. CITATIONS.

Or I'll simply assert you're stating more falsehood. And I called you to repent of this sin dozens of times.

Gotta begin with what people actually state, Ben.

Otherwise you're simply engaged in (mis)characterization.
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Nope. As before, I have it both ways, you're demanding it only one way.

We've discussed this before. False dilemma.
WRong. What comes first --- God CAUSING man's faith, or God RESPONDING TO man's faith? You can't straddle the fence.
Of course you have to demonstrate they're mutually exclusive. Which you haven't, because you can't. It's just an assumption on your part. A mistaken one.

You can't demonstrate it. Because it's quite clear from Scripture, without God as ultimate Cause, it comes to nothing.
This is the fallacy of the Red Herring. I couldn't care less whether you interpret this as "its blessings" (a perfectly legit way to interpret it, if you knew Greek you'd know this is a "produce" interpretation of the noun) or not. It's that word "share" that's critical to my assertion. "co-fellowship".

But of course, ROFL! Of course I can include the word "blessings", and on the exact same basis as your injection of "while" in Heb 6:5!

A translator put it there!

Get real, Ben. When you make an argument, its rules either applies to both sides or it's a false argument.

No, the rules don't apply to Responsible Grace! Responsible Grace must carry in the imaginary realm without reason!
"in a race many run"

one race. many runners. Straight from Paul.

Point lost. Case lost.
No, Paul's "co-fellowship" is lost. sunkoinonos.

Paul's say-so.
Actually, you do. I recently established that when you hedged from actually not sinning to "characterizing" people as "not sinners".

As they continue sinning, your position is not substantially different from Sovereign Grace here. Your only assertion is that we must not allow "God CAUSING man's faith" -- the prime contention of semi-Pelagianism:
CANON 5. If anyone says that not only the increase of faith but also its beginning and the very desire for faith, by which we believe in Him who justifies the ungodly and comes to the regeneration of holy baptism -- if anyone says that this belongs to us by nature and not by a gift of grace, that is, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit amending our will and turning it from unbelief to faith and from godlessness to godliness, it is proof that he is opposed to the teaching of the Apostles
Council of Orange specifically addressing semi-Pelagianism.
I said Paul referred to the race in singular, and the runners in plural. It's so simply, flatly accurate, that you're not going to solve this problem. Paul's grammar prevents your interpretation. It's that simple.

The one crown is the prize for winning that particular race among multiple runners.

I have already answered your question, directly, twice. The crown is what Paul talks about "winning". It's other people. Paul's so blatant about it it's flatly stated:
For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a slave to all, so that I may win more. To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law, as under the Law though not being myself under the Law, so that I might win those who are under the Law; to those who are without law, as without law, though not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ, so that I might win those who are without law. To the weak I became weak, that I might win the weak; I have become all things to all men, so that I may by all means save some.
It's stated over and over again.

My question is why can't you accept Paul's statement for what he says?


Secondarily, I answered the question before, this is now the third time. Your assertion is false. You should've known it was false, you read my answers before. Yet you stated a falsehood. That's bearing false witness, an increase in the number of sins among Christians, and one for which you haven't sought reconciliation.

I consider the behavior of every Christian human being to be Exhibit A in terms of our handling of sins in general. You're no exception in this matter.
 
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nobdysfool

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Is dwelling in Christ of our doing? Or are we placed in Christ, and united with Him, by God's doing?
 
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Jesus tells us that all that the Father gives to Him will be saved. Jesus tells us that those who are His will hear His voice and follow Him. No one can come to Jesus less the Father draws Him. Natural man cannot know the things of God less God gives them the ear to Hear and the eyes to See.. Men are born spiritually blind and it take Jesus to open the eyes of the blind.
 
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cygnusx1

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that about sums up the Gospel sister , and TULIP too.
 
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