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Evidence that homosexuality is wrong..?

OllieFranz

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Well, you said a single gene. What you are talking about now is a combination of genes causing a particular phenotype.

Actually he allowed for both possibilities in his first response.

And there is no reason that one gene cannot express itself differently in the prescence of male vs female hormones, or any other biochemical influence. Granted the most common way it expresses itself differently is to suppress its expression, but surely in the literature one can find examples of other variations of expression.

And it might not even be different in kind, but rather merely different in "side effect." Suppose for example the increase in fertility was a "side effect" (one that produced the real gain of the gene) and what the gene does is that makes the organism more receptive to the seductive approach of a male of the species. In the female that receptivity is accompanied by conditions that increase not fertility per se, but the likelihood of conception (secretion of certain fluids in the vagina and/or the uterus, for example), but in the male, the effect is a little different because the "plumbing" is a little different.
 
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CShephard53

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Indeed it does. Thank you.


Ah, I see, OK.
Some questions: would you consider your celibacy to be unnatural?
Do you consider the unnatural to be immoral?
Listen Mr. Philisophical. That's my business, not yours. What I decide for my own life and why I decide it are completely irrelavent to the topic that I've been discussing with you- which right now is whether or not homosexuality is natural, not if it being natural or unnatural makes it moral. I've claimed that we cannot know one way or the other without more evidence, and that it's both nature and nurture. That's all there is to it, and you've yet to refute me.

If you sincerely want to know the answers to those two questions, you may PM me. That information I will not reveal in any forum.
 
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EnemyPartyII

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not quite... its probably more similar to the sickle cell anaemia gene... when one reinforces the recessive from two heterozygous parents, the homozygous offspring display sickle cell anaemia (homosexuality), but in the case of the heterozygous carriers, you receive an immunity to malaria (increased female fertility)
 
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Horizonol

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That's a trait of a gene whose heterozygous form helps with immunity. A recessive trait linked to a gene is a different issue.
 
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tulc

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Listen Mr. Philisophical. That's my business, not yours.

...it was information you shared though, and I didn't get the impression wiccan was being rude in the questions that were being asked. I think a simple "we're getting into an uncomfortable area here." would have done the trick.
tulc(no need to take offense)
 
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CShephard53

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It is information that is off topic to the discussion I've been having with him.
 
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djbcrawford

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Back in the day, my 'sacrifice' would have been to help others procreate (or more specifically, to help others with my own altruistic genes).
By sacrificing myself out of the gene pool, I help encourage the proliferation of my tribe, and my species.

But any other useful mutations you had would be lost.
 
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djbcrawford

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If you don't have children, you don't pass on your genes. Seems pretty well researched to me.

How does your "significant evidence" work since we can't even prove homosexual is genetic at all.
 
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Phinehas2

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Well written djbcrawford.

Dear EnemyPartyII, the dictionary definition of a homosexual is one who has same-sex attraction and/or practices same-sex sex. Therefore under that definitiion they are never going to have children or pass on any genes because to pass on genes, life needs to be created, and that needs an opposite sex partner. Presumably the only way that can happen and the homosexual remain homosexual is artifically through donors and surrogates.
It just goes to show how bizarre and confused gay thinking is, and how far away from God's purposes it has become.

actually... there is significant evidence suggesting that homosexuality is a recessive trait linked to a gene that INCREASES fertility in female carriers... if correct, then, homosexuality actually INCREASES the ability to pass on genetic material
how can this fertility be in a male same-sex couple then? How can fertility be increased with no prospect of it being realised? Homosexually rather than increase the ability to pass on genetic material, compleley destroys the chance to pass it on. It is the very opposite of what you have said.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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If you don't have children, you don't pass on your genes.
My genes, no. But I help pass on the genes of those individuals with my genes. Unique mutations in me will be lost, but my genome will go on.

How does your "significant evidence" work since we can't even prove homosexual is genetic at all.
On that note, the following is evidence for a genetic basis for homosexuality:
  • A DNA transplant made these male fruit flies turn away from females. [1]
  • New Study Finds Genetic Link to Homosexuality [1]
  • Chromosome linkage studies [2]
  • Maternal linkage, birth order, and female fertility [3]
  • Pheromones correlation [4]
  • Evidence for maternally inherited factors favouring male homosexuality and promoting female fecundity by Dr F Corna, Dr A Camperio-Ciani and Dr C Capiluppi [5]
  • One gene controls sexual orientation in fruit flies [6]
  • According to scientists at the University of Texas, the cochlea ... in lesbians is different than in heterosexual women.
[1] Skeptic Tank
[2] Wikipedia (1)
[3] Wikipedia (2)
[4] Wikipedia (3)
[5] Royal Society journal
[6] http://www.barbelith.com/topic/21335
 
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Wiccan_Child

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In the rare instances these articles cites information, it does so incorrectly (for instance, monozygotic twins are not genetically identicle; after birth, environmental effects alter which genes are active).
And quite frankly, I'm going to take the word of the Royal Society over explicitly anti-gay websites (assualt on Gay American indeed).

This article argues against homosexuality being caused soley by genetics, not that there is no genetic component. My stance is that homosexuality is caused by a mix of genetic and environmental factors.

[/quote]
To me, this article just seems to be discussing the effects of research into homosexuality, rather than the research itself. It is neither here nor there.

Now, if you would care to look at my evidence. As far as I can tell, homosexuality is at least partially genetic and/or in utero in origin.
 
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djbcrawford

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Here's some quotes from the sites you helpfully provided. I have highlighted the appropriate words

a related gene exists in human beings, although there is no evidence yet that the human gene has an effect on sexual preference.

So strictly speaking, the NIH flies are not homosexual but bisexual . And the gene produces no unusual behavior when transplanted into females: the scientists have produced no lesbian fruit flies.

The evidence for the Xq28 marker is therefore preliminary and has yet to be fully proved or disproved
This extreme skewing may influence male sexual orientation through the fraternal birth order effect. The connections discovered, however, would explain only 20% of the cases studied, indicating that this might not be the sole genetic factor determining sexual orientation.
The conclusion, that sexual attraction, whether same-sex or opposite-sex oriented, operates similarly on a biological level, does not mean that there is necessarily a biological cause for homosexuality.
A strong opposition to the genetic explanation is the Darwinian paradox; in fact a genetic factor that reduces reproductive success should progressively disappear from the population. The authors here argue genetic factors could partially explain male homosexuality, and propose a paradox solution:
Males that were artificially given the female version of the gene became more passive and turned their sexual attention to other males.

Summary.

Not exactly proven or conclusive is it. Full of could's and may's and proposition's.

In fact the last link seemed to be to a discussion forum where they talked about male fruit flies being given a female gene which caused them to behave, unsuprisingly enough, like females.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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Nevertheless, this is evidence of a genetic root for sexuality. Yes, it isn't conclusive proof that human homosexuality is soley genetic, but it's evidence nonetheless.

The evidence for the Xq28 marker is therefore preliminary and has yet to be fully proved or disproved
To quote the rest of the paragraph:

Even at face value, the discovery of the Xq28 region would only show one genetic correlate of male homosexuality. Hamer's study was important though, as it was the first experiment to claim such a correlation. These findings do not suggest that the Xq28 region is necessary for homosexuality or singularly causes homosexuality, but rather that it might play one of many factors in causing homosexuality in some males.

I.e., it is evidence of a genetic root for human homosexuality.

I don't see the problem with this one.

The conclusion, that sexual attraction, whether same-sex or opposite-sex oriented, operates similarly on a biological level, does not mean that there is necessarily a biological cause for homosexuality.
Nevertheless, it is compelling indeed when coupled with the other evidence.

Again, I fail to see the problem. Evolutionary theory allows for the development of homosexuality, as paradoxical as it first appears (it is almost identicle to the evolution of altruism, and analogous to the evolution of sexuality itself).

Which is entirely contradictory to what one would expect if there were no genetic causes for homosexuality.

Not exactly proven or conclusive is it. Full of could's and may's and proposition's.
Perhaps you haven't realised: this is science. Science doesn't deal with proofs and certainties outside of mathematics. We think Atomic Theory is correct, but it may just be invisible magic gnomes.
Three guesses why we pick one over the other.
 
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Phinehas2

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Dear Wiccan_Child,
In the rare instances these articles cites information, it does so incorrectly (for instance, monozygotic twins are not genetically identicle; after birth, environmental effects alter which genes are active).
And quite frankly, I'm going to take the word of the Royal Society over explicitly anti-gay websites (assualt on Gay American indeed).
anti-gay? No I am not partisan and biased like you, I am going to take whichever I judge to be right, and I have given one link which is fairly neutral.

But in fact this is just evidence as to whether there is anything inate or not. Whilst I am still open about this many here are not because their whole argument is based on it being fact. Even so the thread asks is homosexuality wrong which is a moral question. The Christian answer is no, because some Christians are homosexual in having same-sex attraction whether nature or nurtured.
 
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SpiritDriven

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In all fairness, this is a thread on the morality of homosexuality. What do you expect to be discussed other than the morality of homosexuality?

The morality of Homosexality ? according to whom ?
The Flesh or the Spirit ?

Romans Chapter 8


1.Nothing, consequently, is now condemnation to those in Christ Jesus. Not according to flesh are they walking, but according to spirit,
2 for the spirit's law of life in Christ Jesus frees you from the law of sin and death.
3 For what was impossible to the law, in which it was infirm through the flesh, did God, sending His own Son in the likeness of sin's flesh and concerning sin, He condemns sin in the flesh,
4 that the just requirement of the law may be fulfilled in us, who are not walking in accord with flesh, but in accord with spirit.
5 For those who are in accord with flesh are disposed to that which is of the flesh, yet those who are in accord with spirit to that which is of the spirit.

If you are truly a follower of Jesus Christ you should be aware there is now no condemnation of a person who is a Christian and homosexual.

That is of course provided you do actualy believe the word of God....

If you wish to be disposed towards the Flesh.... then you do not walk after the Spirit at all.....he knows his sheep and his sheep know him.

The Church and self righteouse zealots have been trying to correct the Flesh for centuries....the reason why the always fail miserably is because they walk after the Flesh....instead of walking after the Spirit.

Peace
 
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Wiccan_Child

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I think the OP wanted to draw out another debate on Romans 1, Leviticus 18:22, the 'unnatural' argument, etc; the OP wanted to debate the trite arguments.
Personally, I latched onto the 'unnatual' argument because I have yet to see someone be consistent in their defense of it. Indeed, I have not seen a definition of 'natural' that omits homosexuality without deferring to the Bible.
I think our evidence banter is a tangent of the 'natural' argument: we have implicitly defined 'natural' as that caused (at least partially) by genetics or in utero.

 
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Wiccan_Child

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The morality of Homosexality ? according to whom ?
The Flesh or the Spirit ?
According to one's personal moral code, of course. If you ascribe to the code of your god(s), then discuss that.

If you are truly a follower of Jesus Christ you should be aware there is now no condemnation of a person who is a Christian and homosexual.

That is of course provided you do actualy believe the word of God....
I do not.

If you wish to be disposed towards the Flesh.... then you do not walk after the Spirit at all.....he knows his sheep and his sheep know him.
Quite.

The Church and self righteouse zealots have been trying to correct the Flesh for centuries....the reason why the always fail miserably is because they walk after the Flesh....instead of walking after the Spirit.

Peace
 
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