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Do you mean given a passage like the Olivet discourse how do you separete the immediate from the ultimate? You're not really supposed to - that's not what its trying to do.
Hey? Did someone just ignore vs. 34? From the NIV:
Iow, Jesus was wrong.
1. As I said, its not an uncommon thing to do when talking in apocalyptic language about escatalogical events.How do you know then, that he was talking partly about his generation and partly about the very distant future?
Again, I don't think that's as clear as all that. I'm sure Paul is still getting his head around it, but the resurrection itself is a splitting of the end-time event into something that will eventually happen and something that has happened to Jesus in anticipation.Only Paul, too, seemed to believe that he would live to see the end time. Apparently, he took Jesus's word quite literally.
In a sense he did - everything from the Resurrection to the final Resurrection is "the last days". It just doesn't look like anything one would have anticipated. And a good number of Jesus comments amount to "yes, but not the way you think".So again: how can you be sure that Jesus himself did not expect the end to come in the generation that he lived in?
1. As I said, its not an uncommon thing to do when talking in apocalyptic language about escatalogical events.
2. The resurrection.
3. Hindsight.
I'm sure Paul is still getting his head around it, but the resurrection itself is a splitting of the end-time event into something that will eventually happen and something that has happened to Jesus in anticipation.
1 Thess 4: 15-17 (NIV) said:15According to the Lord's own word, we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left till the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever.
In a sense he did - everything from the Resurrection to the final Resurrection is "the last days". It just doesn't look like anything one would have anticipated. And a good number of Jesus comments amount to "yes, but not the way you think".
Any evidence that telescoping events in escatalogical discourse is not an uncommon thing to do in apocalyptic writing? I could find some scholarly references but it would take some time.1. Do you have any solid evidence for that? Do you have any evidence that it's the case as far as the Olivet discourse is concerned?
Resurrection isn't possible in the normal course of events - that's the whole point. It's supposed to be something that only happens at the end of the age, and yet happens to Jesus within the age, telescoping those two times together in unexpected ways.2. Evidence that the resurrection actually happened? Or even - that such a thing is actually possible?
Prophesy isn't generally about impressing people by telling them what will happen in the future. The Olivet discourse isn't about trying to tell people when Jesus will finally return - he repeatedly said nobody would know that. It's about tying what's about to happen to what will ultimately happen, about getting them to realise the cosmological significance of the events of the next few weeks and years. Apocalyptic language, and most biblical prophetic language, isn't about giving people an encoded inside track on God's timeline, but about telling people the significance of what they are about to experience.3. Hindsight isn't much use if it's a prophecy, is it? What's the use of a prophecy if you can only understand it after it's been fulfilled?
He's not trying to say "I will be alvie when it happens", but again to put things into their proper perspective. Again, taking the metaphor out of Daniel 7 and mixing it up with a metaphor about Roman emperors to address a particular question that has arisen in Thessalonica, where a couple of strange ideas seem to have arisen. (Though no more strange than the ideas some people who've forgotten how to read that kind of language then build on that text, but hey).I wonder how that can be any clearer.
Prophesy is almost never about giving you that kind of information about the future. It's usually either warning about what you are doing here and now and/or the significance of what is about to happen so that when it happens you'll understand its significance.Which would bring us to two questions:
- What use are prophecies if you can only understand their meaning after they have been fulfilled?
Exactly the same kinds of discernment one has to apply to any other texts, but remembering these were written in the conventions and symbolic worlds of the 1st century. There are no shortcuts and guarantees for that with any text.- How do you destinguish the literal from the symbolical? What method do you use?
Which would bring us to two questions:
- What use are prophecies if you can only understand their meaning after they have been fulfilled? How do you know that your not engaging in a 'Texas Sharpshooter Fallacy' then?
You might be more impressed by other various statements of scientific knowledge that couldn't possibly have been known at the time of their revelation, nor even this aspect of their meaning understood until our science had caught up with what God said 1,000's of years prior. There's lots of that!
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