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Ellen White on the Sabbath

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bugkiller

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I point you back to the context.

I agree with your red highlighted comment. The discourse is directed to the Jew alone and not the whole world or all mankind as contended by the SDA and MJs.

bugkiller
 
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MoreCoffee

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I point you back to the context.

I agree with your red highlighted comment. The discourse is directed to the Jew alone and not the whole world or all mankind as contended by the SDA and MJs.

bugkiller
Yes, that much is very obvious and it is one of the sad effects of sabbatarianism that people will wrest verses and passages to make them fit their doctrine rather than fitting their doctrine to the passage.
 
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TruthWave7

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This one plain text Matthew 12:8; explodes Matthew Henry's Commentary:

If the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath, then its the "Lord's Day". There is no text that says Jesus is Lord of Sunday, or the Lord of the 1st day.


New International Version (©1984)

"For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath."

New Living Translation (©2007)

"For the Son of Man is Lord, even over the Sabbath!"

English Standard Version (©2001)

"For the Son of Man is lord of the Sabbath.”

New American Standard Bible (©1995)

"For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath."
 
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Elder 111

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When you and Albert Barnes finish, God did not in any way even hint of Sunday being a religious day of any sort. There is absolutely no tie to Sunday as the Lord's day, NONE.
Is Friday the devil's day because Jesus died on that day? Or victory day because He purged our sins on that day? The only think Jesus instituted in connection with the whole event was the bred and wine, the last supper. NOTHING ELSE!
 
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Elder 111

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10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
11 For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.
12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
Does not these come from the ten commandments and therefore states that James is speaking specifically of the ten commandments?
The Sabbath is also part of it. Therefore James also means that if we violate the Sabbath we break the whole ten.
 
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Elder 111

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When did Christ ask us to remember His resurrection in such a way? He gave us the wine for His spill blood and the bread for His broken body. Did you read in His word something else that I missed?
 
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Elder 111

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What is bad about that? Is this not the same Moses that had and lived by faith? Heb. 11
 
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Elder 111

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So mankind means Israelites? Ignorant me.
 
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bugkiller

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Who cares?

bugkiller
 
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bugkiller

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It is very interesting to note the only day mentioned about Jesus meeting with anyone after the resurrection was the first day of the week.

bugkiller
 
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bugkiller

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Whoppie!!! big deal.

bugkiller
 
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Lysimachus

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Of course not. It is YOU who are preaching the Law that REQUIRES executing sinners.

No I am not. I am preaching that we are to keep God's law, not execute people for not keeping that law. As I already showed where Vengeance is God's now, and He will execute judgment upon all, according to the law, according to our works. That's what the Bible teaches. We have no right to execute punishment any longer, as the theocratic governmental kingdom was taken away from Israel.

I'll stick with the NT wherein is salvation.

So will I, and the NT is very clear that the Moral Law has always been, and will always be. It is the Constitution of the Universe, where that original Ten Commandment Testimony resides in Heaven. See Revelation 11:19 and 15:5.

Yes, the earthly remedial ceremonial services in relation to that law have ceased. But not the Moral Ten Commandment Law for which the ceremonial law was in place to remedy sinning against. It was a "remedial law"--to "remedy", or "clean up" the problem of sin against the Moral Law. Now, all these earthly remedial services have now transferred to Christ's High Priestly Ministration---the "heavenly remedial services" to resolve the sin problem against the main law contained in Heaven's Ark.

But the earth sanctuary was a "copy" of the heavenly (see Hebrews 8:5, 9:24) , therefore, we know that the Ten Commandments in heaven read the same.

Col 2:16 could not be true if we are still under the Law of Moses. We must choose. NT or the Law of Moses.

The Ten Commandments were not "the Law of Moses". They were the Law of God. See the distinction plainly made in Deuteronomy 4:13, 14; 2 Kings 21:8; and Daniel 9:11.

The only truth in your statement is that yes, the Law of God was included with the Law of Moses, as to simplify the comprehensive law for the Children of Israel. Nonetheless, the scriptures reveal the distinction, and Revelation reveals that the "Testimony" is in Heaven's Ark, judging you.

Colossians 2:16 will always continue to be misconstrued when these principles are not accepted in the heart.

Feast keepers, those who perform circumcision, those who perform all shadowy laws that point forward to Christ, only those are keeping the "Law of Moses".

But the Sabbath is intrinsically tied to the "perpetual", or also known as, "everlasting covenant" as I perspicaciously demonstrated in Exodus 31:16.

Who said that???

Glad you admit that we don't have a license to perform those immoral acts. And for the record, all these Moral Laws were included with the Law of Moses.

The commandments are to YOU and whoever chooses to be under the Law. Not to me.

Keeping the commandments is not being "under the law". To be "under the law" can mean a couple things which boil down to the same thing--1. It can include willfully violating the Moral Law, and therefore coming under its condemnation, or 2. Performing the ceremonial Mosaic Laws which were a shadow, and therefore, once again, coming under the Moral Law's condemnation, for no such earthly law can clean sin against the Moral Law, only the Merits of Christ's Death on the Cross and Intercessory work in Heaven's Sanctuary on our behalf.

Are you under the Law or not? If you are then YOU are REQUIRED to execute sinners.

I choose to be under His Grace. I do not want the Moral Law of heaven to condemn me for willfully violating it. God's Grace covers us when He sees that we are living up to what we know to be right. It does not continue to cover persistent willful transgression.

Salvation is by Grace through Faith alone, and not the works of the law. The "doing" of the commandments does not save you. Rather, it is the fruit of one has truly been saved. The fruit will automatically bear--otherwise, they are cut off and thrown into the fire.
 
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Lysimachus

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The Original Greek in Mark 2:27 , is mankind MoreCoffee.

You are in error:

#190: The Sabbath is Jewish. Even if this were true, which it isn't, what would it prove? Our Savior is Jewish, and 64 of the 66 books of the Bible are too. If we must reject the Sabbath for such a reason, how can we remain Christians?

If the Sabbath is Jewish, why did Jesus say, "The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath" (Mark 2:27)? He didn't say that the Sabbath was made just for Jews. He said it was made for man.

Of Jesus it is said, "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made" (John 1:3). Since He's the one who made the Sabbath for man, He ought to know what He's talking about.

Interestingly, the name Adam is also one of the Hebrew words for "man." Thus Jesus in Mark 2:27 is referring to the making of both the Sabbath and Adam in Genesis 2.

More than this, the Greek of Mark 2:27 says that the Sabbath was made for "the man", not "the man" for the Sabbath. Why did Jesus say "the man" instead of just "man"?

In the first eleven chapters of Genesis, the Hebrew word adam occurs 52 times, always in the singular, and is translated "Adam," "man," and "men." In 43 of these 52 times, adam occurs with the definite article "the." In 7 of the remaining 9, from Genesis 4:25 to 5:5, adam is used as a proper noun, and so the definite article is omitted. Only in 1:26 and 2:5 does the word adam appear neither as a proper noun nor with the definite article.

First the Hebrew phrase "the man" means either Adam or both Adam and Eve. Then, beginning with Genesis 6:1-7, the phrase begins to mean not just Adam but his descendants as well, or in other words, all mankind. Therefore, when Jesus said that He made the Sabbath for "the man," He meant that He made it for Adam and all his descendants, since that is precisely what "the man" means. How then can anyone declare the Sabbath to be merely "Jewish"?

Paul uses similar language when talking about the woman: "Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man" (1 Cor. 11:9). If the Sabbath that was made for the man is really Jewish, then the woman that was made for the man is really Jewish as well. Essentially, that would mean that marriage is only for the Jew, not for the Gentile.

Adam took but two things out of the garden with him: the Sabbath and marriage. Both are under attack today. Even though the Lord blesses and sanctifies but one woman per man on wedding day, there are those who declare it doesn't matter what woman you keep. And though Jesus blessed and sanctified but one day for us, there are those who will say that you can keep any day you want.​
 
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MoreCoffee

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@MoreCoffee: Did you ever stop and think that all the Scriptures that Jesus quoted in the NT were taken from the OT?! This proves his respect for all Scripture, OT and NT.
Who said anything about disrespecting the old testament. Jesus fulfilled it, what more need be said. The one who fulfils the law and thus brings its covenant to an end not only respects but does the law so that those who are united to him in baptism and the Spirit need not serve the law any more. So we know and we say that the law is just and holy and good and spiritual and fulfilled. We do not try to establish our own righteousness by doing works of the law, we receive our righteousness by grace through faith, and our righteousness is Christ himself.
 
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MoreCoffee

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You write as if the only source for definitions is your imagination about what the bible says. Most words in the new testament are defined by their common usage among Greek speaking people of the first century AD. Nobody thinks that they need the bible to define the word "and" or "day" or "woman" etc. These are common words with a common meaning and the "lord's day" is also a phrase made up of common words that the early christians defined as the first day of the week, Sunday. That is all we need to know to define the phrase.

"I was in the Spirit", says "John, "On the Lord's day (Sunday)".
 
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mmksparbud

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bug and coffee---you may ignore what the word of God says as our imagination--nevertheless, it is the word of God, and if Bug doesn't care, then why bother to post--is this thread only for Bug and Coffee?? Point is, it is only your imagination and that of some early Catholics, that ever brought up Sunday as the Lords day--bottom line is according to scripture it is, always has been and always will be, the 7th day.---This is a see-saw---you say what some early sunday keepers say, we say what the bible says and then you all say----who cares--or at least bug says that.----OI vay!!!( That's probably spelled wrong)
 
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MoreCoffee

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But "the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath" does not say anything about "the Lord's day" so you are engaging in imaginative interpretation. Mind you, the Lord owns every day so if you think that being Lord of a day defines the day as the Lord's say then every day would be the Lord's day - which is, of course, an absurdity. Thus your reasoning fails to identify the day but makes the very concept meaningless (if every day is indeed the Lord's day because the Lord owns it then "the Lord's day" means nothing distinct at all).
For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day. (Matthew 12:8)

So back to the theme of the thread, The 7th day sabbath is not obligatory for non-Israelites, never was and never will be.
 
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mmksparbud

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For the Son of man is Lord EVEN of the sabbath day---That seems to indicate that the sabbath day was of importance. And Jesus never said, there will come a day, upon my resurrection that the sabbath day will be Sunday, but only for the Gentiles. He certainly had plenty of opportunity to say something about sunday, he was making all sorts of predictions, like signs of the end, His death and resurrection, keeping the Passover Feast as a remembrance of Him, not one stone left upon another in reference to the temple, and also to pray that their flight not be on the sabbath (meaning that He expected the 7th day sabbath to be kept after His resurrection, why else would He say to pray that you don't flee on the sabbath?),that Peter would deny Him 3 X's--many other predictions, not once about sunday as a remembrance of His resurrection, only the Passover Feast as a remembrance of Him.
 
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MoreCoffee

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For the Son of man is Lord EVEN of the sabbath day---That seems to indicate that the sabbath day was of importance.

It looks more like an indication that among the many things (days) of which the Son of man is Lord the sabbath is among them. No special importance is being attached to the sabbath by Jesus; it was his enemies that attached so much importance to keeping the sabbath that they were willing to kill Jesus for not doing as they desired. Ellen White makes that point in the the chapter this thread is about. So, although I see why you want to interpret the word "even" as signifying something special and important about the sabbath the truth is that it signifies no such thing.
And Jesus never said, there will come a day, upon my resurrection that the sabbath day will be Sunday, but only for the Gentiles.

I do not say that Sunday is the sabbath; I've repeatedly said that the sabbath is the 7th day and Sunday is the Lord's day. I've repeatedly reminded you that the 7th day was given to Israel as their sabbath and that Christians receive their rest in Christ - a rest from works of all kinds including works of the law - and that the Lord's day is the day upon which Christians meet, following apostolic example. You mistake what is being taught by the Church when you think that Sunday is anything except what the Church says it is; the Lord's day upon which Christians worship according to the scriptures.
He certainly had plenty of opportunity to say something about Sunday, he was making all sorts of predictions, like signs of the end, His death and resurrection, keeping the Passover Feast as a remembrance of Him

Jesus didn't ask anybody to keep passover, do you keep it? What he did say was to "do this in remembrance of me as often as you do it". We celebrate the Lord's supper every time we gather to worship, with one exception, Good Friday, that day we receive communion but do not say the Eucharistic prayer nor consecrate the bread and wine.
That'd be because he was speaking of Jerusalem and because the Jews in Jerusalem kept the 7th day.
,that Peter would deny Him 3 X's--many other predictions, not once about Sunday as a remembrance of His resurrection, only the Passover Feast as a remembrance of Him.
 
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