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Does the story of The Woman Caught in Adultery belong in the Bible?

tonychanyt

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ESV John 7:
>53 [[They went each to his own house,

John 8:
>1but Jesus went to the Mount of Olives. 2Early in the morning he came again to the temple. All the people came to him, and he sat down and taught them. 3The scribes and the Pharisees brought a woman who had been caught in adultery, and placing her in the midst 4they said to him, “Teacher, this woman has been caught in the act of adultery. 5Now in the Law, Moses commanded us to stone such women. So what do you say?” 6This they said to test him, that they might have some charge to bring against him. Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground. 7And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, “Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her.” 8And once more he bent down and wrote on the ground. 9But when they heard it, they went away one by one, beginning with the older ones, and Jesus was left alone with the woman standing before him. 10Jesus stood up and said to her, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?” 11She said, “No one, Lord.” And Jesus said, “Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more.”]]

The above passage is not found in the earliest manuscripts. Does it belong in the Bible?

I think it does but I'm biased because I like the story a lot

The following is from [GotQuestions](https://www.gotquestions.org/John-7-53-8-11.html):

The story of the woman caught in adultery is found in John 7:53—8:11. This section of Scripture, sometimes referred to as the pericope adulterae, has been the center of much controversy over the years. At issue is its authenticity. Did the apostle John write John 7:53—8:11, or is the story of the adulterous woman forgiven by Jesus a later, uninspired insertion into the text?

The Textus Receptus includes John 7:53—8:11, and the majority of Greek texts do. That is the reason the King James Version of the New Testament (based on the Textus Receptus) includes the section as an original part of the Gospel of John. However, more modern translations, such as the NIV and the ESV, include the section but bracket it as not original. This is because the earliest (and many would say the most reliable) Greek manuscripts do not include the story of the woman taken in adultery.

The Greek manuscripts show fairly clear evidence that John 7:53—8:11 was not originally part of John’s Gospel. Among the manuscripts that do contain the section, either wholly or in part, there are variations of placement. Some manuscripts put the pericope adulterae after John 7:36, others after John 21:25, and some even place it in the Gospel of Luke (after Luke 21:38 or 24:53).

There is internal evidence, too, that John 7:53—8:11 is not original to the text. For one thing, the inclusion of these verses breaks the flow of John’s narrative. Reading from John 7:52 to John 8:12 (skipping the debated section) makes perfect sense. Also, the vocabulary used in the story of the adulterous woman is different from what is found in the rest of the Gospel of John. For example, John never refers to “the scribes” anywhere in his book—except in John 8:3. There are thirteen other words in this short section that are found nowhere else in John’s Gospel.

It certainly seems as if, somewhere along the way, a scribe added this story of Jesus into John’s Gospel in a place he thought it would fit well. Most likely, the story had been circulating for a long time—it was an oral tradition—and a scribe (or scribes) felt that, since it was already accepted as truth by consensus, it was appropriate to include it in the text of Scripture. The problem is that truth is not determined by consensus. The only thing we should consider inspired Scripture is what the prophets and apostles wrote as they “spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:21).

Those who favor the inclusion of the story of the woman taken in adultery point to the sheer number of Greek manuscripts that contain the passage. They explain its omission in early manuscripts as an attempt by overzealous church leaders to prevent misunderstandings. Here is the theory of those who favor inclusion: John wrote the passage just as it appears in the Textus Receptus. But later church leaders deemed the passage morally dangerous—since Jesus forgives the woman, wives might think they could commit adultery and get away with it. So, **the church leaders tampered with the Word of God and removed the passage.** To leave the passage in, they reasoned, would be to make Jesus seem “soft” on adultery. Later scribes, following the lead of the Holy Spirit, re-inserted the pericope, which should never have been removed in the first place.

The fact, however, remains that John 7:53—8:11 is not supported by the best manuscript evidence. Thus, there is serious doubt as to whether it should be included in the Bible. Many call for Bible publishers to remove these verses (along with Mark 16:9–20) from the main text and put them in footnotes.

Because we’re talking about certain editions of the Bible being “wrong” in certain ways, we should include a few words on the inerrancy of Scripture. The original autographs are inerrant, but none of the original autographs are extant (in existence). What we have today are thousands of ancient documents and citations that have allowed us to (virtually) re-create the autographs. The occasional phrase, verse, or section may come under scholastic review and debate, but no important doctrine of Scripture is put in doubt due to these uncertainties. That the manuscripts are the subject of ongoing scholarship does not prove there is something wrong with God’s Word; it is a refining fire—one of the very processes God has ordained to keep His Word pure. A belief in inerrancy underpins a reverent, careful investigation of the text.
 

Spiritual Jew

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I'm not sure what to make of that passage since I haven't given it much thought before now. I think including it, but adding a footnote to indicate that it was not in the earliest manuscripts, is fine. Then people can decide for themselves if it's inspired or not. I certainly don't see anything written in that passage that contradicts any other scripture or that contradicts Jesus's character, so it's not a big deal to me whether it's included or not, as long as the footnote is there. Mark 16:9-20 is another story, though. :)
 
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Love Fountain

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There is internal evidence, too, that John 7:53—8:11 is not original to the text. For one thing, the inclusion of these verses breaks the flow of John’s narrative. Reading from John 7:52 to John 8:12 (skipping the debated section) makes perfect sense.


Hello Tony,

Yes, John 7:53-8:11 belongs, you are correct in your bias.

Got Questions is not reliable or correct and is very poor scholarship based on the embracing of corrupt and incomplete Egyptian Alexandrian Texts which are not the best or most reliable, they are corrupted and unreliable and being spoon fed to the ignorance of the masses.

John 7:53-8:11 doesn't disrupt or "break" any "narrative" "flow", that would be an incorrect assertion that has become popular opinion and is completely the opposite of the truth!

The truth is that the texts that don't include John 7:53-8:11 are incomplete and/or corrupt. The texts that have the Pericope Adulterae in a different location other than John 7:53-8:11 are in error as well! God is very precise and so is His word placements and style of harmonious writing with no loose ends.

Those who believe the errors put forth by "supposed modern scholarship" are not to be blamed for their error because they make it seem so legit, even appealing to the Egyptian Alexandrian texts of the supposed "oldest and most reliable" which are clearly only some of the oldest incomplete/corrupted texts. Doesn't matter how old they are when they are incomplete and/or containing omissions!

The following are the subject structure outlines as shown, in "the world's best study Bible", of the complete book of John and the expansion of subject structure outlines of chapters and verse texts surrounding John 7:53-8:11 so anyone can see the flow of text that fits in perfectly like an interlocking puzzle proving the nonsense assertion of "breaks...the flow...narrative" as completely in error!

Not only is the error in the quote above refuted by the subject structure outlines below, so is the assertion that a man wrote the Gospel of John because no man can write the way the structure outlines below reveal in John and throughout the whole Bible in such magnitude!

The biblical texts are written by the spirit of God through the hands of many Hebrew people over a long period of time! There are no writings by any man of such styles to this magnitude!

The structure outlines below show the chapters, verses and subjects of the texts along with their corresponding texts.

Removing John 7:53-8:11 from the text would leave a big hole in the biblical text as evidenced below in the subject structure outlines which would also leave loose ends. God is perfect in all His ways which includes His word and styles of writing.

John whole structure.PNG


John structures 7 11 to 11 54 1 of 5.png


John structures 7 11 to 8 59 2 of 5.png


John structures 7 44 to 8 9 3 of 5.png


John structures 8 12 to 8 59 4 of 5.png


John structures 9 1 to 10 21  5 of 5.png


Hope this helps you see that you are correct, John 7:53-8:11 belongs in the Bible and it belongs precisely where the Holy Spirit placed it!

Blessings,
Love Fountain
 
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tonychanyt

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Got Questions is not reliable or correct and is very poor scholarship based on the embracing of corrupt and incomplete Egyptian Alexandrian Texts which are not the best or most reliable
Reference?
 
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