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Farinata

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Eldalar

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Or in short you altered the equation in a way that isn't mathematically correct. You didn't add -1, since adding minus one would have given you:
5-6-1=-1 which would be -2=-1 and therefore is wrong, in reality you altered the values of the equation on only one side, making it a different equation altogether.

What you have proven with that is, that x=2 and y=5 are valid for 3x-1=1y and that they are not valid for 3x=1y.


Yes, if you alter the equation you can prove everything you want, I can prove x=3, y=5 is correct or x=4, y=5 etc. etc. in short I can prove that any number from positive to negative infinity for x or y is a possible solution as long as I add a certain amount to the equation in the way you have done it.

In fact here is the equation that can be used to calculate the alteration you need to make:
y=3x+t (t being the alteration)
t=y-3x if we now insert x= 2 and y=5 we get
t=5-6=-1
and for some other values
x,y
3,5:t=-4
4,5:t=-7
-259,135:t=912

That is not an unorthodox method but a plain and simple incorrect one for this equation, except if the question was: How do I need to alter the equation 3x=1y in order for (2,5) to be valid?

3x=1y if we define x as 2 and y as 5, which is fully possible because it is a variables, we will however get an error on the calcualtor, but that is because 5 is not a 6 and 6 is not a 5 unless we become silly.

Yes you can define the variables however you like, that doesn't mean that those variables will make any sense in the given context(equation).


Totally correct way of doing it, no objection except for one: What is the solution? You have just artificially added 2 new equations, namely:
x=2a and
y=5b
and put them into the given equation, but that isn't the solution, it can be a way to find the solution but it isn't one itself. The last one tried to find a solution, but this one just stops somewhere in the middle.

This equation 3x=1y defines a line, try to draw it and then draw the point (2,5) and see if it is on the line, if not then x=2 and y=5 is not a possible solution for 3x=1y.

I hope I didn't misread or misinterpreted anything in your post but that is how I see your unorthodox solution.
 
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L

Lillen

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If we define one of my letters, i.e, dale, to the solution for every mathematical equation, it will be per definition be the solution for every equation. All you would do is answer dale and your right on that equation, it do however requires the mathematical community to establish that definition...

It is God who has defined everlasting, or eternal. He himself has no beggining and no end. Without the bible no such thing would be knowned by man...
 
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Eldalar

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A number or rather a set of numbers that contains every possible solution for an equation would as far as I know be C (set of complex numbers). But that doesn't mean that C is a possible answer for every equation. Since equations can include or exclude possible values for certain variables (at least values that form a possible variable pair, triplet etc.). It just means that every variable is included in C.

What you seem to want defined is the answer: "The solution to that equation is some number that is a solution to that equation.", which is correct but already given by the fact that well ... the solution to an equation is in the set of numbers that are possible solutions to that equation. So it would be a valid solution, that is simply a repetition of the equation as the definition of the answer.
 
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Wiccan_Child

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You could define 'dale' to be 'the solution to every mathematical equation', but it is trivial to show that this is meaningless. Observe:

Equation 1: x + 4 = 5, solution, x = dale, i.e., dale + 4 = 5, i.e., dale = 1
Equation 2: x + 4 = 6, solution, x = dale, i.e., dale + 4 = 6, i.e., dale = 2

So 1 equals 2, which is wrong. Therefore, the premise (that 'dale' is the solution to every equation) is itself wrong.

In other words, no, you can't just arbitrarily decide new rules to mathematics.

What you can do is define 'dale' to be a set containing all solutions to all mathematical equations, which is fine (barring some strange paradox), but that's not what you're saying. Again, mathematics isn't arbitrary.

It is God who has defined everlasting, or eternal. He himself has no beggining and no end. Without the bible no such thing would be knowned by man...
What relevance does this have to the discussion?
 
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