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Do we need to be baptized in order to be saved ?

Ain't Zwinglian

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Since the Victim had not been offered, nor had the Holy Spirit yet descended, of what kind was this remission of sins? …
Because God is infinite, the Victim had be offered. The atonement is in the eternal presence of God.....even though it had to happen in time.
 
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Danthemailman

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I quoted Scripture (and not a Baptist sermon) and I properly harmonized Scripture with Scripture before reaching my conclusion on doctrine. Children old enough to repent and believe the gospel may be baptized, but the Bible nowhere states that infants (who are incapable of repenting and believing the gospel) are to be baptized. You interpret Scripture according to Roman Catholic speak. I can see that you and I will never come to an agreement here. You also seem to have an ax to grind with Baptists, so it appears to be a church indoctrination thing going on here.
 
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Eternally Grateful

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wow, been awhile since I have been here. but there is alot in this quote.

Bible speak. baptist speak? Never heard of these.

Acts 2 is the most mistranslated few verses in the bible I have ever witnessed. Who did Peter tell to be baptized in acts 2? And in the same token, who did John come to baptize..

and, again, When they both say for the remission of sin. was it in order to recieve, or was it on the fact that they had already recieved (remember, John the baptised called some a brood of vipers. telling them to show proof of their repentance. or proof that had recieved remission.

Do we recieve remission of sin different than in the OT. and how?
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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but the Bible nowhere states that infants (who are incapable of repenting and believing the gospel) are to be baptized.
John the Baptist was filled with the HS before he was born....he was regenerated. Jeremiah was made also filled with HS from the womb....regeneration. King David trusted God upon his mothers breast (Ps 22:9) and nursing children have the ability to sing God's praise (Matthew 21:14f). But of course, most Baptists don't believe these examples.....they have to explain them away.
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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Children old enough to repent and believe the gospel may be baptized,
There are only two places in the NT which 1) contextually teach baptism and 2) instructs the church who can be baptized. Matthew 28:18-20 and Acts 2:38-39. Matthew 28 and Acts 2 are prescriptive texts; all other baptismal texts in the book of Acts are descriptive. In other words, Acts 2 and Mt. 28 are controlling verses (commands) concerning who can be baptized in the NT era.

Matthew 28:19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you.

There is some confusing among some just exactly who is to be baptized from this text. The object of who is to be baptized are the nations. The simple sentence to be diagrammed (subject-verb-object) is YOU MAKE DISCIPLES OF ALL NATIONS. The grammar of the NT doesn't mean YOU MAKE DISCIPLES OF DISCIPLES. The latter interpretation is modern....meaning you only baptize disciples. But this is not what Jesus said or means.

From the Great Commission text:

  • Jesus neither instituted adult nor infant baptism just simply baptism--baptism for all. All Human souls are intended for baptism.
  • Christians are authorized to baptize all who compose a nation, men, women and children & infants.
  • The Great Commission is a Divine commission to "Baptize the nations" and there never was a nation without infants.
  • Jesus gives us no age or intellectual developmental requirement for baptism.
  • Baptism is of universal application; it is a cosmopolitan command in which the differences such as of nationality, race, age, sex, social or civil status or unique cultural norms are leveled.
  • The command, therefore, to baptize all nations, is a command to baptize the youngest child as well as the oldest man.
So there is nothing in the Great Commission that says a certain minimum level of teaching must have been carried out before baptism. All it says is that at the end of the process a well discipled person will have been both baptized and trained up in the faith. The order is irrelevant. To baptize a child and then teach that child "all that Jesus has commanded" is precisely in accord with this text.

*************

Acts 2:38-39 “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 The promise is for you and your children....

We know this text is prescriptive as it contains dual commands and dual promises.....The promise of the HS and forgiveness of sins is given to children through baptism. Here we have two categories of individuals...adults who need to repent and children so might be so young they can't. Verse 39 is also the basis for household baptisms found elsewhere in the NT. We baptize infants as a remedy for original sin.

Credobaptists dismiss most of what I have written. Basically they disregard what Jesus' preached on the matter and only hold to Peter's statement about REPENT and baptized while ignoring vs. 39 The promise is for you and your children....
 
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rturner76

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Chapter and verse please.
Will any of these verses penetrate that Pentecostal type of Protisism or whatever of the 199,000 different denominations of the Protestant? Forget the rigamorole and just read the words as they are. If you can't figure it out, I'm afraid I can't help you understands what baptism really means. My personal feeling is that if it was good enough for Jesus and also endorsed by him as what a Christian should do I really can't figure out what else it can mean. The NT is full of endorsement that baptism is a symbol of your introduction to the Christian faith.
Matthew 3:13-17
Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John. But John tried to deter him, saying, “I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?” Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.” Then John consented. ...

Mark 10:38
“You don’t know what you are asking,” Jesus said. “Can you drink the cup I drink or be baptized with the baptism I am baptized with?”

Luke 3:21
When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too. And as he was praying, heaven was opened
This verse seems to illustrate what the meaning of baptism is. He was baptized (meaning the Son of God obeying his Father God) Why would it be folly for his followers (again talking about God's Son) if it meant nothing? Why would the heavens open up for the Son of God if baptism had no value? Doesn't is seem like the text indicates that heaven will be opened for all who are baptized? Probably not to you I guess.

Here again, if you are willing to open your mind to the truth:

Acts 19:4
Paul said, “John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus.

1 Peter 3:21
and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a clear conscience toward God. It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

This goes with the following verse:
Acts 13:24
Before the coming of Jesus, John preached repentance and baptism to all the people of Israel.

So was it John or Jesus that no idea what they were talking about? Possibly could it be the church you belong to founded by one man and NOT the Apostles? Is it more likely that "some guy" knows more about salvation than Jesus Christ and John the Baptist?

I sincerely apologize for my harsh know-it-all language. I do. I hate to come across as some knows it all. However, I truly believe that baptism is a fundamental component of accepting Christ and his sacrifice, as the Bible says.

You see, according to the Bible (which I believe you are very educated about), It says that accepting baptism is accepting Jesus' resurrection. It's in black and white and I am flummoxed that your denomination doesn't accept that truth. As it was written:


Acts 1:22
beginning from John’s baptism to the time when Jesus was taken up from us. For one of these must become a witness with us of his resurrection.”

Have these Bible verses posted in context made you think that possibly baptism is important to one's introduction or acceptance in the saved Christian community? I ask because Acts 1:22 states specifically that our baptism is directly related to Christ's resurrection. I ask that because I think we can both agree that salvation is granted by his sacrifice on the cross. This verse directly connects baptism with resurrection.

So, having said and quoted all of that, would you be willing to show me the Biblical evidence that there is no need for Christians to be baptized? I can actually see the logic in something like Anabaptism or some other denominations that preach against baby baptism. I can totally see the logic in requiring a person to make a conscious choice whether to be baptized or not. My religion baptized babies but from my understanding, they call it a "Christening" which is valid if a baby dies. It's later in life that they receive a "Confirmation" that they believe their baptism is valid and then they are making a conscious commitment to honor their baptism but I do believe it is debatable because most example in the Bible about baptism were taken by adults by choice so it's a great thing to debate about I think. Anyway I know you are a fellow Christian and I pray for God's blessing on you and your family
 
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rturner76

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That is very true, however, I want to point to my last response which included a quote from the Book of Acts that states how our baptism is connected to Christ;s resurrection.....Again and remember how we must become a witness to the resurrection THROUGH our water baptism.

Acts 1:22
beginning from John’s baptism to the time when Jesus was taken up from us. For one of these must become a witness with us of his resurrection.
Now, we can easily debate about infant baptism, confirmation, Catechism or Luthar's Catachism etc. but according to Acts 1:22 it seems to be a hard and fast rule that our baptism allows us to receive the benefits of Christ's torture, death and resurection. Do you disagree with that statement? I would like to know why baptism it seems to me you are saying means nothing but I could surely be misinterpreting your posting here. If so, I sincerely apologize. If that is your opinion I would be honored to know what you were taught or what you have read that would lead to this conclusion
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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Will any of these verses penetrate that Pentecostal type of Protisism or whatever of the 199,000 different denominations of the Protestant?
The last time I counted, there were exactly 199,349,297,110 different Protestant denominations. Or approximately 16 denominations per person in the world.
 
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Doug Brents

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I was just wondering does a person need to be baptized in water in order to be saved ?
Absolutely YES!
1 Pet 3:21 - in water baptism the Holy Spirit saves us and gives us a new conscience
Acts 2:38 - repent and be baptized in order to receive forgiveness of sin
Rom 6:1-7 - in baptism we die to sin, are united to Jesus' death and resurrection, and are made new creations
Col 2:11-14 - in baptism our sins are cut from us by the Holy Spirit, we are united to Jesus' death and resurrection
Eph 5:26-27 - in baptism we purified and made holy, and worthy to be the bride of Christ
Gal 3:26-27 - in baptism we are clothed with Christ and made children of God
Mark 16:16 - everyone who believes in Jesus and is baptized will be saved, those who don't believe remain lost (because lost is the default condition of man)
 
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Danthemailman

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Roman Catholics would agree with you but they also teach "infant baptism." What are your views on infant baptism?
 
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Doug Brents

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Roman Catholics would agree with you but they also teach "infant baptism." What are your views on infant baptism?
"Infant baptism" is good for only two things: getting an infant wet, and getting them angry (some of the time).

Belief in the Gospel is essential for salvation to be received (Mark 16:16, John 3:16, etc.), but an infant cannot even comprehend the Gospel, let alone believe it.
Repentance is also required in order to receive salvation (Acts 3:19), yet infants cannot repent (and some would say they have nothing for which to repent yet).
Verbal and public confession of Jesus as Lord is also required to receive salvation (Rom 10:9-10, Matt 10:32), yet infants cannot confess what they do not yet know or comprehend.

So infant baptism is meaningless. If that is the only baptism a person has received, then they have not yet been baptized into Christ.
 
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Danthemailman

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"Infant baptism" is good for only two things: getting an infant wet, and getting them angry (some of the time). So infant baptism is meaningless. If that is the only baptism a person has received, then they have not yet been baptized into Christ.
At least we agree on that.
 
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Danthemailman

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So you do believe at least some of the truth.
I believe all of the truth. Repentance is a change of mind and the new direction of that change of mind is faith in Jesus Christ for salvation. (Acts 11:18,18; Acts 20:21) Two sides to the same coin. Those who have truly repented believe the gospel and those who believe the gospel have already repented in the process of changing their mind and choosing to believe the gospel.

Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. (Romans 10:8-10) There is divine influence or direct operation of the Holy Spirit in the heart of a person when confessing Jesus as Lord. This confession is not just a simple acknowledgment that Jesus is the Lord (even the demons believe that), but is a deep personal conviction that Jesus is our Lord and Savior.

Water baptism follows and signifies receiving remission of sins/salvation through believing in Him. (Acts 10:43-47) John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Infant baptism is unscriptural.
 
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Doug Brents

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This is true, and is on the way toward receiving salvation, but salvation is not yet received just because belief and repentance have been done.
Again, this is true, and is on the way toward receiving salvation, but salvation is not yet received just because belief and confession have been done.
Water baptism follows and signifies receiving remission of sins/salvation through believing in Him. (Acts 10:43-47)
Water baptism does indeed follow after belief, repentance, and confession, and is the point at which sins are actually removed (1 Pet 3:21, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16).
Your fixation on the "belief only" verses causes you a blind spot in relation to salvation. You must remember, Dan, that ALL Scripture is equally true at the same time. This means that while John 3:18 does indeed only mention belief, it does not override, overrule, or negate Rom 10:9-10, Acts 3:19, or Acts 2:38, all of which place a human action as a prerequisite for receiving salvation. If you really believe (have faith) then you will do what God says leads to receiving His gift. If you don't do what He says, then you really don't believe.
Infant baptism is unscriptural.
Agreed.
 
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Danthemailman

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This is true, and is on the way toward receiving salvation, but salvation is not yet received just because belief and repentance have been done.
Do these passages of Scripture say that salvation is not yet received when one believes? (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; 1 John 5:13 etc..). Repentance is implied or assumed because it already took place in the process of choosing to believe. (Acts 3:19; 11:17,18; 20:21)
Again, this is true, and is on the way toward receiving salvation, but salvation is not yet received just because belief and confession have been done.
Romans 10:8-10 says otherwise.
Water baptism does indeed follow after belief, repentance, and confession, and is the point at which sins are actually removed (1 Pet 3:21, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16).
Why do you reverse the order of belief and repentance? See the proper order in (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21) The remission of sins is signified but is not procured in water baptism. Which of those verses above say that we are saved by grace through water baptism or that whoever is not water baptized will be condemned? Your eisegesis results in that conclusion. I have already thoroughly explained each of those verses to you before on multiple Christian forum sites, but you prefer your eisegesis instead.
Your fixation on the "belief only" verses causes you a blind spot in relation to salvation. You must remember, Dan, that ALL Scripture is equally true at the same time.
You have a fixation on your 4-step plan of salvation with your main fixation being on water baptism. Remember that a symbol is not the reality but is a picture of the reality. You seem determined to "add" works to the gospel which is the power of God unto salvation to everyone who BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) You need to properly harmonize Scripture with Scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine instead of patching Scripture together in order to create a works based false gospel.
It's not about overriding or negating Scripture but Biblical hermeneutics.
 
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Doug Brents

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Those passages do not state it. But Scripture is additive. If two passages say that different things (repentance, confession, and baptism) lead to one destination (salvation), then even if there is no passage that says so, it is not received until all of them are accomplished, or else the passages that say the excluded action is required become a lie.
Romans 10:8-10 says otherwise.

Why do you reverse the order of belief and repentance? See the proper order in (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21)
I do not reverse the order. Belief and confession, confession and belief are both required BEFORE salvation is received, for both of them RESULT IN salvation being received (the result ALWAYS comes after the condition).
No Dan, there is no eisegesis. What does the Word of God say?
1 Pet 3:21 - baptism (in water as the Flood) now saves you through the actions of the Holy Spirit giving you a clean conscience.
Rom 6:1-7 - in baptism we die to sin, and are united to Jesus' death and resurrection through our faith.
Col 2:1-14 - in baptism our sin is cut from us by the Holy Spirit, and He unites us with Jesus' death and resurrection.
Gal 3:26-27 - in baptism we are clothed with Christ and adopted as children of God.
John 3:5 - without being born again (which requires both water and the Spirit) we cannot enter the kingdom of God (be saved).

Dan, faith without action is dead and useless. Actions/works are the soul, the life of faith, and without them faith doesn't really exist James 2:20, 22, 24, 26).
You have a fixation on your 4-step plan of salvation with your main fixation being on water baptism.
Wrong, I have a fixation on Scripture, and the proper understanding of it.
Remember that a symbol is not the reality but is a picture of the reality.
The Temple in Jerusalem, and the Tabernacle before it, was a symbol of the real thing in Heaven (Heb 8:5). But were the only place in which to worship God (make sacrifices, etc.) for over fourteen hundred years. The symbol can very much be real for as long as it is relevant. There will be no further Testament/Covenant beyond the New Covenant in Jesus' blood, so baptism will not cease to be the point at which we enter into union with Christ until the world ends.
You seem determined to "add" works to the gospel which is the power of God unto salvation to everyone who BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16)
To everyone who HAS FAITH (pistis in the Greek). And again, faith is not real if it does not include actions, and specifically the actions that God has said result in receiving His blessing of forgiveness/salvation.
Could Naaman have gone and conquered some great army, or shaved his head and eaten only grass, or stripped naked and run through town, or just thought in his head that he was cleansed in order to receive cleansing of his leprosy? No. He was required to do what, and only what, the prophet of God told him to do. And he was not cleansed when he turned off the road to head toward Jordan. He was not cleansed when he believed that if he went to Jordan he would be healed. No, he was cleansed when he had dipped the seventh time, just as the prophet told him he would be. It is the same with us and the reception of salvation.
It's not about overriding or negating Scripture but Biblical hermeneutics.
I have perfectly harmonized Scripture with Scripture excluding nothing, negating nothing, and overriding nothing. You, and the others all around the world who teach the "easy believeism", "belief only", "faith only", "get baptized AFTER you are saved" false gospel have not properly harmonized Scripture with Scripture, and do indeed exclude, negate, and override many Scriptures in order to arrive at that false doctrine.
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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I was just wondering does a person need to be baptized in water in order to be saved ?
When one stands before God on Judgment Day, will God ask, "Were you baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit?" Will you be confident when replying, "Lord, I did not get baptized because I was not sure how to do it correctly and if it mattered for salvation."
 
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Eternally Grateful

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The last time I counted, there were exactly 199,349,297,110 different Protestant denominations. Or approximately 16 denominations per person in the world.
add the roman denominations. (Catholic and all the different types or orthodoxies) and thats an awful lot
 
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Eternally Grateful

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This is true, and is on the way toward receiving salvation, but salvation is not yet received just because belief and repentance have been done.
it is if the person has called out to God. John 3 makes this clear. as does John 6 to name but a few
No. This would be a works based Gospel. My salvation is completed when I call out to God and God himself baptizes me into himself. where my sins are washed away (romans 6, 1 cor 12, gal 3 and Col 2 with the spiritual baptism done without hands
acts 2: 38 is the most mistranslated verse in scripture.

Peter told everyone to be repent and they would receive the gift of the spirit . He only told a select few to get baptized in the account they had received remission of sin

instead of focusing on water, why don;t we focus on God. he is the author and finisher. not water
 
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