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Dispensational fallout?

JJB

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http://www.christianforums.com/t2012929-how-many-new-covenants-a-reformed-look-at-a-dispensational-error.html

After reading the thread above, actually just the OP, this question came to mind:

Is one of the fallouts of the dispensational view of scripture interpretation, all the conflict that arises from within the church over the word "all"? In other words, can universalism, which seems to be rearing its ugly head and gaining more ground over our brethren, be a result of the "literal" interpretation of scripture?

Now, I know that ai + on = always be. That is rejected/denied by universalists. Many universalists state that we must read the bible plainly, so they assume "all will be saved" means literally every person.

I'd love to hear your thoughts or ideas on this topic.
 

CoffeeSwirls

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If you are referring to the verse that says that "All of Israel will be saved" you will need to determine what the writer (Paul?) means by Israel. The epistles have many examples of Israel being described as believers, ie spiritual Israel. There are also examples of "those who say they are Jews and are not" in the letters in Revelation. In essence, Israel means the elect of God. (not just the Calvinists)
 
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JJB

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The verse most often cited by universalists is 1 Tim 2:4. The emphasis is always on verse 4. Disregarding that this passage is addressed to believers.

Here is 1 Tim 2:1-4:

1I urge, then, first of all, that requests, prayers, intercession and thanksgiving be made for everyone— 2for kings and all those in authority, that we may live peaceful and quiet lives in all godliness and holiness. 3This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.

It's okay if somebody tells me they're not seeing any connection between dispensationalism and universalists. I won't be offended.
 
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Rick Otto

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JJ,
in my experience, "reading the bible plainly" too means ignoring context as well as other relevant scripture. :doh:

I believe Mr. Swirls was refering to this:


Ro 9:6 - Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:

:cool:
 
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JJB

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Rick Otto said:
JJ,
in my experience, "reading the bible plainly" too means ignoring context as well as other relevant scripture. :doh:

I believe Mr. Swirls was refering to this:


Ro 9:6 - Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:

:cool:

Thanks, Rick. Plain reading can lead to heresy particularly when taken out of context and not proofed or read with other scripture in view.

Thanks for your thoughts and input so far everyone! :wave:
 
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