Differing translations of Romans 3:21-26

dms1972

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NT Wright has a very specific agenda and he is very concerned with how he can use scripture to support that agenda - not with the truth.

I wouldn't listen to a word he says.

The NIV is a far better modern language translation...

I don't know much about him. Can you point me to anything? I was aware that he supports the 'new perspective' on Paul, that began with EP Sanders? But I haven't studied that in any detail to know what its all about.
 
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hedrick

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The NIV is in fact a problem, but the problem isn't the phrase "in Christ." NRSV also translates "in" and footnotes "of" as an option.

It's not a manuscript issue. Rather, it's a real ambiguity. The wording could mean either things, either "faith in" or "faithfulness of."

I'm looking at Dunn's commentary. Like Wright, he also tends to support the New Perspective. He says that both are syntactically possible, so you have to decide based on the context. The context is contrasting faith with works of the law, so it's our faith that's involved. I.e. "faith in Christ" is fine.

But that particular phrase isn't the problem with the NIV translation. NRSV:

But now, apart from law, the righteousness of God has been disclosed, and is attested by the law and the prophets, 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe.

NIV:
But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe.

Note that NIV adds "given".

Paul is saying that God is righteous, i.e. faithful to his covenant. He carries out his covenant commitment by justifying all who have faith in Christ. The righteousness of God is his commitment to save his people. It's not some entity that he transfers to us, as is implied by NIV's translation. The word "given" in the NIV is not present in the Greek. Of course translators often have to supply additional words to make sense of the Greek, but in this case it's almost certainly wrong.

KJV is nearly unintelligible here. It's hard to know what it means. ESV, NKJV and Holman are like NRSV. The most interesting is NET. This is a conservative translation. I don't think they're proponents of the New Perspective as Wright is. One the advantages is NET is wonderful footnotes. If you ever wondered why some translations say one thing and some another, the NET footnotes will explain it. They translate:

namely, the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ28 for all who believe.

I like the translation theologically. Many distinguished scholars agree. But the majority view is NRSV / ESV / NKJV / Holman.

I use NRSV. If for some reason you don't like it, I'd recommend ESV. But NET is always worth looking at too.
 
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hedrick

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In response to "Is NT Wright saying this is speaking about the 'faithfulness' of Christ Himself in obeying His Father by giving His life?"

That's what I am not sure.

I haven't read Wright on this passage, but this is a sensible reading. Paul says that God sent Christ because of his righteousness, i.e. his commitment to save his people. It's sensible to say that Christ was faithful to that intention in dying for us. That's the implication of the NET translation:

"namely, the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ28 for all who believe."
 
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bekkilyn

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Thanks! This has gotten me curious as to how YLT translates some other words that can be questionable. Went ahead and got both a Kindle version and ordered a physical text.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Good post.
I am partial to YLT, and because of it's literalness to the Hebrew and Greek texts, it is a little more awkward reading for most and has to be read slow.

That aside, I also like to look at commentaries on more "difficult" verses, especially where the commentators expound on the Greek and how those words are used elsewhere.

Biblehub is a favorite Bible site of mine and has been for years.

Mind you, this is all just on 1 single verse.......
[because of the length, I wrapped it in quotes]

Romans 3:22 Commentaries: even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction;
And the others:
 
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dms1972

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Thanks.

Its been said that rendering of "by faith in Jesus Christ, to all who believe..." seems like a repetition, like saying "by trusting, to all who trust." So its questioned on that ground also.

Although that seeming repetition may not be a redundancy but to make it clear that it is to all who believe, that there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile.

One really has to get Paul's line of thought, what it is he is explaining, through these verses, even going back to the start of the chapter or earlier. That's obviously what is at issue in the debate between those who adhere to the older view and those who follow the new perspective. I haven't looked into that in detail.
 
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