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<blockquote data-quote="AlexBP" data-source="post: 57157425" data-attributes="member: 261211"><p>Both of these objections have been addressed. For example, the article by Marcus Boekmuehl which I link to below addresses both of them at length. The statement in verse 16 that "wrath has come upon them to the uttermost" is not necessarily a reference to the desturction of Jerusalem or the war of 66-73 A.D. In fact, that translation from the NASB is not a particularly good one. A better translation would be this from the NIV: "The wrath of God has come upon them at last." Boekmuehl delves into the particular language of this phrase at length, noting how these words were used in contemporary Christian and Jewish writing. As he concludes:</p><p></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'">Concerning the entire argument, Boekmuehl sees no reason to believe that Paul is referring to the destruction of Jerusalem, and he gives a strong argument that there were several other events that this could be referring to.</span></p><p></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'">He also addresses the issue of Paul's supposed attack against the Jews being out of character and contrary to what Paul says in other letters. As Boekmuehl shows, the word that's used to reference "the Jews" in verse 14 did not necessarily refer to the Jewish people as a whole. In fact, when Paul wanted to refer to the Jewish people as whole, he typically used a different word. There's reason to believe that this Paul was directing this condemnation against a certain subset of Jewish leaders in Jerusalem.</span></span></p><p></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'">Here's the article:</span></span></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"><a href="http://www.tyndalehouse.com/tynbul/library/TynBull_2001_52_1_01_Bockmuehl_1Thess2.pdf" target="_blank">http://www.tyndalehouse.com/tynbul/library/TynBull_2001_52_1_01_Bockmuehl_1Thess2.pdf</a></span></span></p><p></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'">So in conclusion, there's no overwhelming reason to believe that 1 Thess 2:14-16 is an interpolation. In the absense of any manuscript evidence calling its validity into question, the burden of proof is on the doubters to show that this passage is not original to Paul's letter. Hence it seems safe to take that passage as yet another in the long series which clearly indicate that Paul believed in an earthly Jesus.</span></span></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"></span></p><p><span style="font-family: 'TimesNewRomanPSMT'"></span></p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="AlexBP, post: 57157425, member: 261211"] Both of these objections have been addressed. For example, the article by Marcus Boekmuehl which I link to below addresses both of them at length. The statement in verse 16 that "wrath has come upon them to the uttermost" is not necessarily a reference to the desturction of Jerusalem or the war of 66-73 A.D. In fact, that translation from the NASB is not a particularly good one. A better translation would be this from the NIV: "The wrath of God has come upon them at last." Boekmuehl delves into the particular language of this phrase at length, noting how these words were used in contemporary Christian and Jewish writing. As he concludes: [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT]Concerning the entire argument, Boekmuehl sees no reason to believe that Paul is referring to the destruction of Jerusalem, and he gives a strong argument that there were several other events that this could be referring to.[/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT]He also addresses the issue of Paul's supposed attack against the Jews being out of character and contrary to what Paul says in other letters. As Boekmuehl shows, the word that's used to reference "the Jews" in verse 14 did not necessarily refer to the Jewish people as a whole. In fact, when Paul wanted to refer to the Jewish people as whole, he typically used a different word. There's reason to believe that this Paul was directing this condemnation against a certain subset of Jewish leaders in Jerusalem.[/FONT][/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT]Here's the article:[/FONT][/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][URL]http://www.tyndalehouse.com/tynbul/library/TynBull_2001_52_1_01_Bockmuehl_1Thess2.pdf[/URL][/FONT][/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT][FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT]So in conclusion, there's no overwhelming reason to believe that 1 Thess 2:14-16 is an interpolation. In the absense of any manuscript evidence calling its validity into question, the burden of proof is on the doubters to show that this passage is not original to Paul's letter. Hence it seems safe to take that passage as yet another in the long series which clearly indicate that Paul believed in an earthly Jesus.[/FONT][/FONT] [FONT=TimesNewRomanPSMT] [/FONT] [/QUOTE]
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