A few things I've been pondering concerning the Eucharist. Before we begin let me make clear that I believe the truth of the Real Presence of Christ. What I am making a point about is how we are to understand that presence.
The terminology used derives from Aristotelian philosophy. St. Thomas Aquinas is often given for the definition. The usage had been batted around for awhile before him but he gave it precision. Even at the Fourth Lateran Council, it was not defined with Aquinas' clarity but it can be understood to have the same meaning since the terminology was widely in use.
In Aristotle there was in the study of things, the substance (Aristotle used "essence") and the accidents. Physics is the study of accidents. First Philosophy (or Metaphysics) is the study of substance. All the things of the physical world (size, shape, color, etc.) are accidental to the thing. They may change but the thing also has an essence apart from its physical properties. For men it is the soul.
Hence the change for Aquinas was not a physical but a metaphysical one. The bread and wine were still physically bread and wine but metaphysically we feed on the body and blood of Christ. This gets around most of the most common objections without losing the reality - it also explains why no one objected at the time and why even some Orthodox borrowed the terminology.
What happened later was the rise of nominalism with Occam. Substance became an unperceivable physical reality and accidents the perceivable physical realities. This shows in our common use of "substance" for a physical thing. The philosophical language changed and Trent used the old words with the new meaning implied. Christ became "physically" present but not physically perceivable.
Any comments?
The terminology used derives from Aristotelian philosophy. St. Thomas Aquinas is often given for the definition. The usage had been batted around for awhile before him but he gave it precision. Even at the Fourth Lateran Council, it was not defined with Aquinas' clarity but it can be understood to have the same meaning since the terminology was widely in use.
In Aristotle there was in the study of things, the substance (Aristotle used "essence") and the accidents. Physics is the study of accidents. First Philosophy (or Metaphysics) is the study of substance. All the things of the physical world (size, shape, color, etc.) are accidental to the thing. They may change but the thing also has an essence apart from its physical properties. For men it is the soul.
Hence the change for Aquinas was not a physical but a metaphysical one. The bread and wine were still physically bread and wine but metaphysically we feed on the body and blood of Christ. This gets around most of the most common objections without losing the reality - it also explains why no one objected at the time and why even some Orthodox borrowed the terminology.
What happened later was the rise of nominalism with Occam. Substance became an unperceivable physical reality and accidents the perceivable physical realities. This shows in our common use of "substance" for a physical thing. The philosophical language changed and Trent used the old words with the new meaning implied. Christ became "physically" present but not physically perceivable.
Any comments?