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Discussion and Debate
Discussion and Debate
Ethics & Morality
Debate on the polytheistic past of monotheism
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<blockquote data-quote="ShamashUruk" data-source="post: 71562973" data-attributes="member: 400322"><p>Right, I can see in Jewish folklore an exodus being compared to other myths. But I just don't see any extra Biblical evidence of a specific Israelite exodus actually happening.</p><p></p><p>I will look into that theory further, but there are a few descending issues with the theory itself. Sumer begins as polytheistic even in agriculture we find varying Gods to bless their harvest, such as Abu, Hadad, and even Nissaba. The idea of Monotheism is one God with all the powers combined, sort of like superman times a billion. In polytheism we find multiple Gods with varying powers. Polytheism not being the base form of religion I understand, but I am unaware of how the people of Sumer were anything other than polytheists. You could make an argument for Henotheism in Sumer, as each city-state worshiped a God central to it, but not as a whole. But nonetheless it is an interesting theory and worht looking into, and is there a free copy of the book or do you have a link of some sort? Here is a commentary on the book (<a href="https://answersingenesis.org/human-evolution/origins/wilhelm-schmidt-and-the-origin-of-religion/" target="_blank">Wilhelm Schmidt and the Origin of Religion</a>), but I'd expect thsi kind from a Christian website. In order for Monotheism to work you'd need a God and no other deities, of course one could argue that subservient deities work congruently with Monotheism, such as God being the hero and angels being subservient to God as they cannot exceed his power. However, I don't equate that with Monotheism either, if there is recognition of other beings such as angels in the example I just used. Angels worship God, so this could also indicate Monotheism, as humans are banned from the worship of angels. Wherein Polytheism, the human can worship which ever God he is drawn to worship. We don't see humans in Sumer being banned from worship of their chosen God, even in their homes they'd have a personal God.</p><p></p><p>Not really sure where to go with your statement on Egyptian writing, if their writing is Afro-Asiatic which I don't disagree, then the Hittite's have an Indo-Euro based writing. We can see there are inherent differences. I think my only point was that we do see influence of Sumer on Akkad in writing. Also, correct on Ziggaurats and Pyramids, but if the influence on Egyptians is from the Saharan dwellers we'd note that there would be influence on Egyptians from the Saharan dwellers, possibly their ceremonies, rites, and so on. Allow me more research on this as I have it somewhere.</p><p></p><p>I meant Dilmun, not Qatar. But, the only theory I think any Christian would agree with is that the earth at one time, land was not divided until Peleg or so. Whether Qatar was part of the fertile crescent remains to be seen, it is very possible, now that you can call a speculation. But if there is Biblical implications that land was not divided, which there are, is it really speculation? </p><p></p><p>What am I thinking? 1200 AD, not BC, because in 380 AD Theodosius is the emporer. Also, 382 CE or AD should be used to denote the emergence of Lucifer in Isaiah, and in 1200 AD someone is in Rome (LOL) it totally escapes me who, and is spreading Christianity, but I cannot remember who it was. I will read your blog, thank you.</p><p></p><p>Next up the comparing of rituals.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="ShamashUruk, post: 71562973, member: 400322"] Right, I can see in Jewish folklore an exodus being compared to other myths. But I just don't see any extra Biblical evidence of a specific Israelite exodus actually happening. I will look into that theory further, but there are a few descending issues with the theory itself. Sumer begins as polytheistic even in agriculture we find varying Gods to bless their harvest, such as Abu, Hadad, and even Nissaba. The idea of Monotheism is one God with all the powers combined, sort of like superman times a billion. In polytheism we find multiple Gods with varying powers. Polytheism not being the base form of religion I understand, but I am unaware of how the people of Sumer were anything other than polytheists. You could make an argument for Henotheism in Sumer, as each city-state worshiped a God central to it, but not as a whole. But nonetheless it is an interesting theory and worht looking into, and is there a free copy of the book or do you have a link of some sort? Here is a commentary on the book ([URL="https://answersingenesis.org/human-evolution/origins/wilhelm-schmidt-and-the-origin-of-religion/"]Wilhelm Schmidt and the Origin of Religion[/URL]), but I'd expect thsi kind from a Christian website. In order for Monotheism to work you'd need a God and no other deities, of course one could argue that subservient deities work congruently with Monotheism, such as God being the hero and angels being subservient to God as they cannot exceed his power. However, I don't equate that with Monotheism either, if there is recognition of other beings such as angels in the example I just used. Angels worship God, so this could also indicate Monotheism, as humans are banned from the worship of angels. Wherein Polytheism, the human can worship which ever God he is drawn to worship. We don't see humans in Sumer being banned from worship of their chosen God, even in their homes they'd have a personal God. Not really sure where to go with your statement on Egyptian writing, if their writing is Afro-Asiatic which I don't disagree, then the Hittite's have an Indo-Euro based writing. We can see there are inherent differences. I think my only point was that we do see influence of Sumer on Akkad in writing. Also, correct on Ziggaurats and Pyramids, but if the influence on Egyptians is from the Saharan dwellers we'd note that there would be influence on Egyptians from the Saharan dwellers, possibly their ceremonies, rites, and so on. Allow me more research on this as I have it somewhere. I meant Dilmun, not Qatar. But, the only theory I think any Christian would agree with is that the earth at one time, land was not divided until Peleg or so. Whether Qatar was part of the fertile crescent remains to be seen, it is very possible, now that you can call a speculation. But if there is Biblical implications that land was not divided, which there are, is it really speculation? What am I thinking? 1200 AD, not BC, because in 380 AD Theodosius is the emporer. Also, 382 CE or AD should be used to denote the emergence of Lucifer in Isaiah, and in 1200 AD someone is in Rome (LOL) it totally escapes me who, and is spreading Christianity, but I cannot remember who it was. I will read your blog, thank you. Next up the comparing of rituals. [/QUOTE]
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