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Again, I would advise you to read Edmundson before deciding that Edmundson is wrong.
Irenaeus' work is not extant in the original Greek. The version you link to is largely translated from the Latin. The translation of the text you gave is according to the Greek, because the Greek is used where it is extant (the Latin is used where it isn't). The Greek is extant at this point because it is preserved as a quotation in Eusebius. The Latin cannot mean 'the apocalypse was seen'. The Greek is ambiguous, and Edmundson explains why it is a mistake to understand the subject as the apocalypse. Right now you don't really understand his position, and that is not a good foundation to reject it. But if you are satisfied to reject it without reading/understanding it, that is your prerogative. I'm just pointing out where the argument can be found.
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Hi Bible Truth,
How can I agree or disagree with Edmundson when no one has articulated his position? I think I've gone out of my way to articulate mine.
Jerome said:Ioannes apostolus, quem Iesus amavit plurimum, filius Zebedaei, frater Iacobi apostoli, quem Herodes post passionem domini docellavit, novissimus omnium scripsit evangelium, rogatus ab Asiae episcopis, adversus Cerinthum aliosque haereticos et maxime tunc Ebionitarum dogma consurgens, qui asserunt Christum ante Mariam non fuisse. unde et compulsus est divinam eius nativitatem edicere. sed et aliam causam huius scripturae ferunt, quod cum legisset Matthaei, Marci, et Lucae volumina, probaverit quidem textum historiae, et vera eos dixisse firmaverit, sed unius tantum anni, in quo et passus est, post carcerem Ioannis, historiam texuisse. praetermisso itaque anno, cuius acta a tribus exposita fuerant, superioris temporis antequam Ioannes clauderetur in carcerem, gesta narravit: sicut manifestum esse poterit his qui diligenter quatuor evangeliorum volumina legerint. quae res etiam διαφωνιαν, dissonantiam, quae videtur Ioannis esse cum caeteris, tollit. scripsit autem et unam epistolam cuius exordium est: Quod fuit ab initio, quod audivimus et vidimus oculis nostris, quod perspeximus et manus nostrae contrectaverunt de verbo vitae, quae ab universis ecclesiasticis et eruditis viris probatur. reliquae autem duae, quarum principium est: Senior electae dominae et natis eius, et sequentis: Senior Caio charissimo, quem ego diligo in veritate, Ioannis presbyteri asseruntur, cuius et hodie alterum sepulcrum apud Ephesum ostenditur, etsi nonnulli putant duas memorias eiusdem Ioannis evangelistae esse, super qua re cum per ordinem ad Papiam auditorem eius ventum fuerit, disseremus. quarto decimo igitur anno, secundum post Neronem persecutionem movente Domitiano, in Patmos insulam relegatus, scripsit apocalypsim, quam interpretatur Iustinus Martyr et Irenaeus. interfecto autem Domitiano et actis eius ob nimiam crudelitatem a senatu rescissis, sub Nerva principe redit Ephesum, ibique usque ad Traianum principem perseverans, totas Asiae fundavit rexitque ecclesias, et confectus senio, sexagesimo octavo post passionem domini anno mortuus, iuxta eamdem urbem sepultus est.
Jesus did not discuss authorship, he was simply reflecting the beliefs of Second Temple Judaism.
I have been reading the book Paradigm and that deals with this issue. A paradigm is literal and exact and that is difficult for people who are accustomed to non literal metaphors. It would not matter when the Bible was written. What is important is the precision. Like a Blueprint needs to be precise to build the building.I keep running across people who date Daniel shortly before the time of Christ, and who date the Gospels as post-'destruction of the temple' without showing any evidence for their dating.
Daniel accurately predicts the world kingdoms following Nebuchadnezzar, and the struggles of Israel with Greece shortly before the birth of Christ. So, it is no surprise to me to find critical atheists claiming it is impossible for Daniel to have been written when it is claimed to be.
It is also no surprise to me to see critical atheists dating the Gospels after the fall of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple -- because Jesus accurately predicted these things. (Though Moses gave a blow by blow account of the fall of Jerusalem, but that is much harder to disclaim.)
But, I have been surprised to find that many believers are also doing the same sort of dating. I was angered by watching a recent believer based documentary on the Gospels which insisted on dating the Gospels so late without giving references whatsoever. They did not even bother to give alternate opinions and cited the same theologians who all agreed with each other.
It may even be that these theologians are unaware of how this dating is performed.
They just cite dates without thinking about it.
While I can see how we may be able to say "these documents came from the first century", I can not see how there is a scientific way to specifically date such documents "only after the destruction of the temple" without assuming that prophecy is impossible.
Daniel, is far more difficult. The Jews were very well written, and I would be deeply surprised if there is not strong evidence Daniel did not just magically appear so many years after it was claimed to have been written (at the literal time of Daniel under Nebuchadnezzar.)
Is this not just 'group think' and the problem of people being unable to accept that accurately predicting the future is possible?
Or am I missing some level of objective reasoning used here?
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