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Why are some issues directly followed such as the OT's ban on homosexuality while other things such as using birth control is allowed(which is anti literial biblical) and stoning is not allowed?
Of course it is all predetermined anyways......
Why are some issues directly followed such as the OT's ban on homosexuality while other things such as using birth control is allowed(which is anti literial biblical) and stoning is not allowed?
Homosexuality (as well as other forms of sexual immorality) is expressly forbidden in the NT as well as the OT. There should be no quarrel on this for the Scriptures make this quite clear.
Certain forms of birth control are allowable under the auspices of Christian liberty. But it must be emphasized that any form of birth control that can cause spontaneous abortion is strictly forbidden under the sixth Commandment.
It is important to distinguish that while the ceremonial and civil laws were abrogated in the New Testament due to the finished work of Christ, the moral law as summarized by the Ten Commandments still stands and by it we are all still bound.
The death penalty (you mention stoning in particular) should still be upheld in the case of murder because this is a principle of the common grace covenant (Noahic, cf. Gen. 8:20–9:17) that precedes the Mosaic law (we are concerned here with its civil aspects now abrogated) instituted by God after the Exodus. This covenant spans from the fall of mankind to the Parousia because God is bound to keep His promises.
We cannot fulfill all of the moral laws. Only through God's grace does he enable us to do good works.Also how dose the whole "elect" thing work with moral laws without free will?
Well, the letters of Paul are an excellent place to see that the Law occupies a different place in the New Covenant than it did in the old. He has much to say about it's reach, effect and even it's role especially in the lives of Gentiles.So would you say then that the death penalty should be used for a cheating spouse as in the OT? Or do you have a different interpretation since Christ said not to stone the cheating woman and to have compassion for her? Also where dose it show the old laws all being abolished?
Also how dose the whole "elect" thing work with moral laws without free will?
So would you say then that the death penalty should be used for a cheating spouse as in the OT? Or do you have a different interpretation since Christ said not to stone the cheating woman and to have compassion for her? Also where dose it show the old laws all being abolished?
Also how dose the whole "elect" thing work with moral laws without free will?
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