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Covenant Theology Basics

AaronBrauny91

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I have been moving towards a completely reformed faith since hearing of the doctrines of grace several years ago. One thing that I haven't done enough study on is covenant theology. As I understand it covenant theology teaches that in the garden with Adam, God established a covenant of works with him in regards to eternal life. Do not eat of the fruit and you shall live. But after Adams sin, God then established a covenant of grace with His people, wherein Christ would come and pay for their sins, thus redeeming them. I also understand that covenant theology ties in with amillenialism. My questions is: What else is missing from what I know about covenant theology?
 
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Hi Aaron,

The book you want to get your hands on is "The Christ of the Covenants" by O. Palmer Robertson.

I taught an adult sunday school class using this book. Great material. Fair minded. Well documented, easy to read, and pretty comprehensive in its scope.

The basic understanding is that, wherever we look in Scripture, the basis upon which God has always founded His relationship with man has been that of "covenant." It runs all the way through Scripture. "I will be your God, and you shall be My people." That is the language. Adam broke the first covenant, and by extension, we all fell. The second covenant, the covenant of Grace, was made with Christ on behalf of His people.

Best wishes in your studies. In the end, I believe Covenant theology best expresses Biblical theology and the way of the Lord's dealings with us and all mankind.

In Him,
Jason
 
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I have been moving towards a completely reformed faith since hearing of the doctrines of grace several years ago. One thing that I haven't done enough study on is covenant theology. As I understand it covenant theology teaches that in the garden with Adam, God established a covenant of works with him in regards to eternal life. Do not eat of the fruit and you shall live. But after Adams sin, God then established a covenant of grace with His people, wherein Christ would come and pay for their sins, thus redeeming them. I also understand that covenant theology ties in with amillenialism. My questions is: What else is missing from what I know about covenant theology?
There are 7 major covenants (2 different types) and only one of them is not longer valid as it was replaced with the New Covenant -7th covenant. Here is the list:

  • Noahic - Gen 9:8-17 Royal grant
  • Abrahamic A - Gen 15:9-21 Royal (land) Grant
  • Abrahamic B - Gen 17 Suzerian/vassal
  • Sinaitic - Ex 19-24 Suzerian/vassal
  • Phinehas - Num 25:10-13 Royal Grant
  • Davidic - II Sam 7:5-16 Royal Grant
  • New - Jer 31:31-34 Royal Grant
 
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heymikey80

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I have been moving towards a completely reformed faith since hearing of the doctrines of grace several years ago. One thing that I haven't done enough study on is covenant theology. As I understand it covenant theology teaches that in the garden with Adam, God established a covenant of works with him in regards to eternal life. Do not eat of the fruit and you shall live. But after Adams sin, God then established a covenant of grace with His people, wherein Christ would come and pay for their sins, thus redeeming them. I also understand that covenant theology ties in with amillenialism. My questions is: What else is missing from what I know about covenant theology?
I'd also highly, highly recommend O.P. Robertson's "Christ of the Covenants".

I'm not quite so enamored of the way the two overarching covenants are treated in Covenant Theology. Scripturally, a "covenant" is an agreement -- and that Covenant Theology identifies two abstract kinds of covenants that God seems to engage in: works and grace covenants.

Covenants operate a certain way, too: their stipulations don't get abrogated, they get either fulfilled or they continue (cf Gal 3:15).

So the way Covenant Theology applies to Scriptural covenants is more complex -- but not along an abrogation model that's found in dispensationalism.
 
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Frogster

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I have been moving towards a completely reformed faith since hearing of the doctrines of grace several years ago. One thing that I haven't done enough study on is covenant theology. As I understand it covenant theology teaches that in the garden with Adam, God established a covenant of works with him in regards to eternal life. Do not eat of the fruit and you shall live. But after Adams sin, God then established a covenant of grace with His people, wherein Christ would come and pay for their sins, thus redeeming them. I also understand that covenant theology ties in with amillenialism. My questions is: What else is missing from what I know about covenant theology?

The best bet is galatians 3-4, Paul was quite clearly saying, we are children of the promise to Abraham, justified by faith, and that was before the law.
 
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Aaron...I am not well versed in "Covenant Theology" by name, but from what I have heard of it, it sounds fishy.

As someone else has already stated, a covenant is basically a contractual agreement, inaugurated by one person usually for their betterment, or for the betterment of both parties. The covenant goes like this, Person "A" states that they will do such and such if person "B" will do such and such. That is a basic covenant, usually mediated in blood.

I also have an issue with this "covenant of grace" nonsense, as if grace did not exist in the old covenant God made with Israel. Grace has always been a part of all God's covenants with mankind (for grace is God's love in action towards man, just as true living faith is man's love in action towards God). We here in this county (USA) have been subject to numerous false teachings that began back 100 years ago or so, from preachers and teachers that didn't have any business teaching or preaching in the first place. They were uneducated in scripture, and my bet is they didn't understand diddly about the covenants of God to us, nor do I believe most of them to be not walking in the spirit, therefore void of godly understanding or wisdom in the things of God. Basically, most of them were unable to "rightly divide the Word of God."

There never was a "covenant of works" and we most certainly are not in a covenant of grace (let me qualify that statement before you throw the baby out with the bathwater). The old covenant God made with Israel was simply this...(1) faith (trust in God for...whatever) and (2) obedience to His voice. Guess what, the New Covenant in Christ's blood is based upon (1) faith (trust in Christ for...whatever) and (2) obedience to the voice of His Spirit (today we do not obey the "law" - which was the sacrificial system for cleansing from sin (( NOT the 10 Commandments)), instead, we serve God in the "new and living way" of obedience to His Spirit ((Romans ch.6-8)).

The means of participating in the New Covenant are exactly the same, that has NOT changed, and a forthright study of the New Testament demonstrates this. The New Covenant was inaugurated by Christ through His perfect blood, He once and for all fulfilled the LAW regarding the sacrificial system for eternal life...He did not do away with the 10 commandments (except for the Sabbath, for He is now our rest). Christ fulfilled the law (of the sacrificial system) on our behalf because we never could - not because we can't (Paul said that according to the law he was blameless, but he had to be a Pharisee in order to accomplish such a feat), but because most of us will never be that dedicated (John the Baptist's father was also acknowledged as "blameless" before God" in the first chapters of Luke).

Today, we fulfill the commandments by loving on people, and in I John we are told by God through John that in order to be in Christ (God) we (1) put our faith in Christ, and (2) obey God's commandments. The only thing that changed between the old and new covenants was the mode and the mediator...Christ, eternally, after the order of Melchizedek.

In this New Covenant, we are promised the indwelling of the Spirit of God, the New Birth in God by His Spirit, power to overcome sin, eternal life, a kingdom, and many more promises that the old covenant didn't give. Entrance into this New Covenant is through Christ...if we are abiding in Christ, then we are abiding in the New Covenant in His blood, for we are baptized into Him, becoming the people of the covenant, the people of God, what is also called the Kingdom of God. Christ is the door by which we must enter.

I would highly recommend studying both the Tent of Meeting and the Temple of God, for in these we find analogies of Christ in everything, and the temple (or tent of meeting, which gave way to the temple) is intimately connected with the old covenant. One cannot understand the New Covenant unless they fully understand the old, and in order to understand the old, you must also have a good understanding of the temple...the furniture, the oil in the golden lampstand, the laver...all of it...even the coverings of the Tent of Meeting had significant meanings and forshadoings of Christ's office to come.

You have a lot of studying to do, my friend...and it's exciting and worth the time and effort!

Blessings!
 
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Interesting post.
Aaron...I am not well versed in "Covenant Theology" by name, but from what I have heard of it, it sounds fishy.
What is fishy about covenat theology?
As someone else has already stated, a covenant is basically a contractual agreement, inaugurated by one person usually for their betterment, or for the betterment of both parties. The covenant goes like this, Person "A" states that they will do such and such if person "B" will do such and such. That is a basic covenant, usually mediated in blood.
Which of the covenants is not sealed in blood? The real distinction of a covenant is thae fact that it is sealed in blood espceially when it comes to one with God.
I also have an issue with this "covenant of grace" nonsense, as if grace did not exist in the old covenant God made with Israel. Grace has always been a part of all God's covenants with mankind (for grace is God's love in action towards man, just as true living faith is man's love in action towards God). We here in this county (USA) have been subject to numerous false teachings that began back 100 years ago or so, from preachers and teachers that didn't have any business teaching or preaching in the first place. They were uneducated in scripture, and my bet is they didn't understand diddly about the covenants of God to us, nor do I believe most of them to be not walking in the spirit, therefore void of godly understanding or wisdom in the things of God. Basically, most of them were unable to "rightly divide the Word of God."
Why is it nonsense to you? Covenant of grace is merely a descriptive name of the New Covenant or second which are both used in the Bible. Where can you show that grace is administered by the law. You can't even show where it is provided for in the law. You can show where grace was given by God opposing the law. Grace always opposes law anywhere. No law requires it anywhere.

I certianly agree that there are many unqualified people preaching in the past and these days. People want - no demand their ears tickled. Many preachers are only preaching what they have heard. Why not it appears to work. If it ain't broke don't fix it. They haven't even looked at or consider what they say. Attitude of the good ole boys club. They are making merchandise of many. They aren't just fleecing the sheep they're consuming them. Easy money. One even told me that.
There never was a "covenant of works" and we most certainly are not in a covenant of grace (let me qualify that statement before you throw the baby out with the bathwater). The old covenant God made with Israel was simply this...(1) faith (trust in God for...whatever) and (2) obedience to His voice. Guess what, the New Covenant in Christ's blood is based upon (1) faith (trust in Christ for...whatever) and (2) obedience to the voice of His Spirit (today we do not obey the "law" - which was the sacrificial system for cleansing from sin (( NOT the 10 Commandments)), instead, we serve God in the "new and living way" of obedience to His Spirit ((Romans ch.6-8)).
If it isn't or wasn't a covenant of work(s), Why did God offer them rest? Jesus ooffered them something they didn't have in Mat 11:28-30. If He did He was just talking to hear His head rattle and they rightfully shouldn't have given Jesus a second thought as just another babbler.
The means of participating in the New Covenant are exactly the same, that has NOT changed, and a forthright study of the New Testament demonstrates this. The New Covenant was inaugurated by Christ through His perfect blood, He once and for all fulfilled the LAW regarding the sacrificial system for eternal life...He did not do away with the 10 commandments (except for the Sabbath, for He is now our rest). Christ fulfilled the law (of the sacrificial system) on our behalf because we never could - not because we can't (Paul said that according to the law he was blameless, but he had to be a Pharisee in order to accomplish such a feat), but because most of us will never be that dedicated (John the Baptist's father was also acknowledged as "blameless" before God" in the first chapters of Luke).
Whopps! You just said above that we don't obey the "law." I think that you should have included the word 'the' in your quote marks. After all wer're not alking about 'a' law, we're talking about 'the law.' Any wherre the law is talked about in the NT it is spoken about as a single undivisible unit per Gal 3:10, 5:3 and James 2:10. James even uses one of the 10 commandments (adultery) to make his point. So the 10 commandments must be 'the law.' Paul also does the same thing in Romans 7:7 when talking about the law. He says in v 6 that we're delivered from that law and in Gal 4:30 says to throw it out.

What is the purpose of the law? One of those statements is found in Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. Therefore one of those purposes must be to establish righteousness. I ask is it ours? If it is no one can qualify and there can be no salvation. Jesus said our righteousness must exceed that of the scribes and pharisees? Does your personal righteousness achieved by the law make the grade? Nope because there is none no not one that is righteous - Ps 14:3, 53:3 and my favorite Rom 3:10 - As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: That is why redemption is necessary. The righteousness that God requires is not achievable by men and can only be had through a direct gift.

The method by which we participate in the NC has changed from the way which was provided by the law (Torah/Pentateuch) according to Jer 31:31-34 and demonstrated in the NT both by historical statements found in Acts and teaching found from Romans to Jude.
Today, we fulfill the commandments by loving on people, and in I John we are told by God through John that in order to be in Christ (God) we (1) put our faith in Christ, and (2) obey God's commandments. The only thing that changed between the old and new covenants was the mode and the mediator...Christ, eternally, after the order of Melchizedek.
When you say commandments, I take it you mean the 10 commandments. And that is simply not correct. I say that because there are many that try to follow at least parts of the law as it is preached today. The law only condemns. It doesn't provide for life because no one can keep it. If that were true then there would be no need of Christ. The law is for the unrighteous/ungodly - Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,10For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; I Tim 1:9, 10. Obedience by incident is not obedience to anything. If that were so then my unregenerate neighbor is righteous and doesn't need Jesus. Then really this whole religious thing is a sham.
In this New Covenant, we are promised the indwelling of the Spirit of God, the New Birth in God by His Spirit, power to overcome sin, eternal life, a kingdom, and many more promises that the old covenant didn't give. Entrance into this New Covenant is through Christ...if we are abiding in Christ, then we are abiding in the New Covenant in His blood, for we are baptized into Him, becoming the people of the covenant, the people of God, what is also called the Kingdom of God. Christ is the door by which we must enter.
The problem as I see it is that many demand this from the flesh and body that we see. Even Paul battled with this issue as noted in Romans 7:14, 25.
I would highly recommend studying both the Tent of Meeting and the Temple of God, for in these we find analogies of Christ in everything, and the temple (or tent of meeting, which gave way to the temple) is intimately connected with the old covenant. One cannot understand the New Covenant unless they fully understand the old, and in order to understand the old, you must also have a good understanding of the temple...the furniture, the oil in the golden lampstand, the laver...all of it...even the coverings of the Tent of Meeting had significant meanings and forshadoings of Christ's office to come.
It isn't necessary to understand these thing to be saved. Understanding is not required to be saved. Faith is required. Faith believes and accepts as fact that which it doesn't understand. Every thing you think you know is so based. You accept simply because someone told you it was so and is enforced by the mass of others accepting the samething.
You have a lot of studying to do, my friend...and it's exciting and worth the time and effort!
Yeppers so start studying. A teacher never quits studying and is forever a student. And blessings to you!
 
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heymikey80

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Aaron...I am not well versed in "Covenant Theology" by name, but from what I have heard of it, it sounds fishy.

As someone else has already stated, a covenant is basically a contractual agreement, inaugurated by one person usually for their betterment, or for the betterment of both parties. The covenant goes like this, Person "A" states that they will do such and such if person "B" will do such and such. That is a basic covenant, usually mediated in blood.
A covenant has stipulations, yes. Only a covenant of works involves quid pro quo contractual agreements, or "works for wages" agreements.

Paul points out, covenants can have these agreements -- he calls them "law". But Paul also points out covenants can also have something else -- unilateral promises. Finally Paul points to the New Covenant as one that has promises, but not law in its stipulations -- in Galatians 3.

Paul points out quite a different form of covenant that is obviously prevalent in ancient times.

The adoptive covenant is one.

So's the marriage covenant.

The family covenant is yet another.

Each one is blatantly obviously alluded to in Scripture.

The Scriptural covenant itself is referred to as well: "The New Covenant".

These covenants are based on (for the most part) unilateral love on the part of the person in the majority.

It's quite clear God would be the Person in the majority.
I also have an issue with this "covenant of grace" nonsense, as if grace did not exist in the old covenant God made with Israel.
Nobody's said any different. In point of fact, the covenant of works is the one with Adam. Moses is actually part of the covenant of grace.
Grace has always been a part of all God's covenants with mankind (for grace is God's love in action towards man, just as true living faith is man's love in action towards God).
There's the operative word: "part". So, a question -- if a covenant is out of works, how can it be a covenant out of grace? Romans 11 doesn't seem to want the two to work together -- "otherwise grace is no more grace."

The old covenant God made with Israel was simply this...(1) faith (trust in God for...whatever) and (2) obedience to His voice. Guess what, the New Covenant in Christ's blood is based upon (1) faith (trust in Christ for...whatever) and (2) obedience to the voice of His Spirit (today we do not obey the "law" - which was the sacrificial system for cleansing from sin (( NOT the 10 Commandments)), instead, we serve God in the "new and living way" of obedience to His Spirit ((Romans ch.6-8)).
Yet to Paul, "What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works." Rom 9:30-32
 
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Which of the covenants is not sealed in blood?
The Rainbow, for one.


Where can you show that grace is administered by the law. You can't even show where it is provided for in the law.
Grace isn’t administered by the law, it has always been administered by God. Grace was given in the very FACT that God chose Israel to make a covenant with. Grace is not provided for in the law, grace was what provided the people with the law.


If it isn't or wasn't a covenant of work(s), Why did God offer them rest? Jesus ooffered them something they didn't have in Mat 11:28-30.
The rest Jesus and God both offers is rest from all the hundreds of statutes, regulations, and rules contained within the law – they did not offer rest from obeying God, and to think so is to greatly misunderstand scripture.


Whopps! You just said above that we don't obey the "law." I think that you should have included the word 'the' in your quote marks. After all wer're not alking about 'a' law, we're talking about 'the law.' Any wherre the law is talked about in the NT it is spoken about as a single undivisible unit per Gal 3:10, 5:3 and James 2:10.



Wrong…but don’t feel too bad, a great many people believe this fallacy. Deuteronomy 4:40 “Therefore you shall keep his statutes and his commandments, which I command you today, that it may go well with you and with your children after you, and that you may prolong your days in the land that the LORD your God is giving you for all time.”

Deuteronomy 6:1
"Now this is the commandment, the statutes and the rules that the LORD your God commanded me to teach you, that you may do them in the land to which you are going over, to possess it,

Deuteronomy 6:2
that you may fear the LORD your God, you and your son and your son's son, by keeping all his statutes and his commandments, which I command you, all the days of your life, and that your days may be long.

There is a clear delineation between the 10 commandments ([FONT=&quot]miṣwāh: A feminine noun meaning a commandment) and the statutes ([FONT=&quot]ḥōq[/FONT]: A masculine noun meaning regulation, law, ordinance, decree, custom). In the NT the word equating to the OT statute is [FONT=&quot]nómos[/FONT]; “to divide among, parcel out, allot.” In the NT, it means law, specifically of particular laws, statutes, or ordinances; spoken in the NT mostly of the Mosaic statutes of laws relating to civil rights and the law of marriage; the Levitical priesthood; ordinances or commands respecting the promulgation of the Law. It refers to laws relating to external religious rites (e.g., purification; circumcision; sacrifices). [/FONT]
The Law (i.e., a code or body of laws), in the NT used only of the Mosaic code. Specifically, works of the Law meaning obedience to the Mosaic law. This term is used as a metonymy for the Book of the Law (i.e., particularly the books of Moses, the Pentateuch).

In the NT, the word equating to commandments is [FONT=&quot]entolḗ;to charge, to command, meaning the commandments of God. In the NT, [FONT=&quot]Entolḗ[/FONT] is the most commonly utilized words meaning commandment, stressing the authority of the one commanding.[/FONT]



What is the purpose of the law? …The righteousness that God requires is not achievable by men and can only be had through a direct gift.
Correct, and that is why righteousness is imputed to us as a gift through the work of Christ upon the cross. However, we are commanded even by Christ to practice obeying the commandments of God, for if we do not then we no longer abide in God (Christ) and then cease to have that righteousness imputed to us. We only have that righteousness of Christ as we remain abiding in Him, and how do we remain abiding in Christ?

1 John 3:23-24
“And this is his commandment, that we believe in the name of his Son Jesus Christ and love one another, just as he has commanded us. 24 Whoever keeps his commandments abides in God, and God in him. And by this we know that he abides in us, by the Spirit whom he has given us.



When you say commandments, I take it you mean the 10 commandments. And that is simply not correct. I say that because there are many that try to follow at least parts of the law as it is preached today.

Clearly you misunderstand me…

Romans 13:8-10

Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, "You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet," and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: "You shall love your neighbor as yourself." 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

Matthew 25.31-46 is a word picture Christ gave to us to help understand this principle, we fulfill the commandments by loving on people when we have the opportunity to do so. We will be judged by this obedience to love, and if we fail to love on people then we fail to love on Christ and God, and we forfeit the inheritance of eternal life. You are still held accountable to obey the commandments, just not the precepts and statutes of the law, and again, we fulfill those commandments by simply loving on people, which is loving on God.



Every thing you think you know is so based. You accept simply because someone told you it was so and is enforced by the mass of others accepting the samething.
Actually, you couldn’t be more wrong. Most of what I was taught at a young age, when I grew up and began studying the Word of God for myself, I discovered that much of what I had been taught wasn’t true…but that is a historical issue spanning the last 150 years or so.


Blessings!
 
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The Rainbow, for one.
OK, you got me on that one. Got some more?
Grace isn’t administered by the law, it has always been administered by God. Grace was given in the very FACT that God chose Israel to make a covenant with. Grace is not provided for in the law, grace was what provided the people with the law.
That is my point. Grace isn't part of the law. In fact grace opposes the law in every instance and so does the mercy granted by grace on the matter of sin. Grace is not associated with the law in any manner. They aren't compatable.
The rest Jesus and God both offers is rest from all the hundreds of statutes, regulations, and rules contained within the law – they did not offer rest from obeying God, and to think so is to greatly misunderstand scripture.
I'm not promoting lawlessness nor sin in any manner.
Wrong…but don’t feel too bad, a great many people believe this fallacy. Deuteronomy 4:40 “Therefore you shall keep his statutes and his commandments, which I command you today, that it may go well with you and with your children after you, and that you may prolong your days in the land that the LORD your God is giving you for all time.”
What falacy? That the law is a single undivided unit? or that we're delivered from the law which clearly includes the 10 commandments James 2:10, 11 - For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. 11For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.

The word law (nomos) is the same word used in both verses. In verse 11 there is no mistake that the 10 commandments is called the law. James doesn't talk about any civil or ceremonial aspect of the law. He directly addresses the 10 commandments as the law. This means that when the law is referred to it includes the 10 commandments. There is no way to discuss everything at once and it doesn't mean the law is segregated. While there are laws that regulate the administration of society you can't say that the 10 commandments don't regulate society. Lying, stealing, murder and commiting adultery are behaviors affecting society and are forbidden. Now the proponents of the law say that only the ceremonial apsects of the law are done away with. What do you do with Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; - Col 2:14? Are the forgivness of sins contrary to us? Is celebrating deliverence contrary to us? Is celebrating God's blessings contrary to us? I really don't think so. You? The flesh (man's nature) loves to do evil - murder, lie, steal, commit adultery, etc. Man's nature is what makes reverse pyschology work. Rebellion is at our core. Ever heard you can't do that as a challenge? The common reply is oh yeah just watch me!! If it weren't for the desire to know why, we would not be going to the moon or communicating via the net with computers.

Even your citation of Deut 6:2 says all in reference to the law. There is no seperation of any part of the law referred to as statues and commandments. What is the real difference between a commandment and a statute? I think the only technical difference aspect is that a statute is codified or written, thus it would include the 10 commandments. Commandmets includes the 10. So does the well known chapter of blessing and cursing of Deut 28. It leaves nothing out - nothing.

You wish to play on the words commandments and statues. What does it say Israel is obligated to? I read to both. What are commandments? I think they are laws to be obeyed with punishment for disobedience. The same goesfor the statutes. There is a curse for not obeying either. Both are the law and in being the law there is no difference.

I rely very heavily on Jer 31:31-34 which says make or more literally cut a new chadash not chadash covenant not according to the covenant I made with their fathers. Now the word chadash and chadash appear to be the same. So does read and read and phonetically read and reed or read and red. There are two different distinct words spelled chadash in the transliterated version. They also appear the same in the Hebrew. If you wish the Jeremiah reference quoted in hebrews leaves no doubt what is being said. Hebrews uses kainos opposed to neos. There can be no confusion. Cut new leaves no room for doubt. And being different from the previous one doesn't mean moving from stone to the heart. God'sadministration is entirely different in the NT/NC from the law issued at Mt Sinai. A very good illustration of this is John 8:1-11 which is even before the cross. No worries the law was only until John when something else was preached - meaning contrary to.
Deuteronomy 6:1
"Now this is the commandment, the statutes and the rules that the LORD your God commanded me to teach you, that you may do them in the land to which you are going over, to possess it,

Deuteronomy 6:2
that you may fear the LORD your God, you and your son and your son's son, by keeping all his statutes and his commandments, which I command you, all the days of your life, and that your days may be long.

There is a clear delineation between the 10 commandments ([FONT=&quot]miṣwāh: A feminine noun meaning a commandment) and the statutes ([FONT=&quot]ḥōq[/FONT]: A masculine noun meaning regulation, law, ordinance, decree, custom). In the NT the word equating to the OT statute is [FONT=&quot]nómos[/FONT]; “to divide among, parcel out, allot.” In the NT, it means law, specifically of particular laws, statutes, or ordinances; spoken in the NT mostly of the Mosaic statutes of laws relating to civil rights and the law of marriage; the Levitical priesthood; ordinances or commands respecting the promulgation of the Law. It refers to laws relating to external religious rites (e.g., purification; circumcision; sacrifices). [/FONT]
The Law (i.e., a code or body of laws), in the NT used only of the Mosaic code. Specifically, works of the Law meaning obedience to the Mosaic law. This term is used as a metonymy for the Book of the Law (i.e., particularly the books of Moses, the Pentateuch).
Yes and the 10 commandments are part of and central to that law. They are not seperate from that law. Even big time SDA evangelists say so in their book The Atntichrist Agenda. You would not know of the 10 commandments if they were not written in the book of the law.
In the NT, the word equating to commandments is [FONT=&quot]entolḗ;to charge, to command, meaning the commandments of God. In the NT, [FONT=&quot]Entolḗ[/FONT] is the most commonly utilized words meaning commandment, stressing the authority of the one commanding.[/FONT]
I guess you wish to say that the statues were not commands thus really commandments. Please explain John 14:15. Well let me as you to go to the bottom line with an explaination of John 15:10.
Correct, and that is why righteousness is imputed to us as a gift through the work of Christ upon the cross. However, we are commanded even by Christ to practice obeying the commandments of God, for if we do not then we no longer abide in God (Christ) and then cease to have that righteousness imputed to us. We only have that righteousness of Christ as we remain abiding in Him, and how do we remain abiding in Christ?

1 John 3:23-24
“And this is his commandment, that we believe in the name of his Son Jesus Christ and love one another, just as he has commanded us. 24 Whoever keeps his commandments abides in God, and God in him. And by this we know that he abides in us, by the Spirit whom he has given us.
I think that you have your pronouns mixed up. It is very common. I also think that you have a problem with the word commandments and to Whom what commandments belong as easily demonstrated in John 15:10. The word commandments doesn't remotely refer to the 10 in your citation.
Clearly you misunderstand me…

Romans 13:8-10

Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, "You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder, You shall not steal, You shall not covet," and any other commandment, are summed up in this word: "You shall love your neighbor as yourself." 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

Matthew 25.31-46 is a word picture Christ gave to us to help understand this principle, we fulfill the commandments by loving on people when we have the opportunity to do so. We will be judged by this obedience to love, and if we fail to love on people then we fail to love on Christ and God, and we forfeit the inheritance of eternal life. You are still held accountable to obey the commandments, just not the precepts and statutes of the law, and again, we fulfill those commandments by simply loving on people, which is loving on God.
Do I really misunderstand you or are you really preaching that Christians are obligated to the law and in reality there is no new covenant, just an altered first covenant? The scripture clearly promises a new covenant and God, Himself testifies in 3 Gospels that the new covenant is the current covenant. Do you know of more than one new covenant? I don't. If the new covenant that Jesus testifies is in His blood is not the one promised in Jeremiah, what new covenant is He talking about?
Actually, you couldn’t be more wrong. Most of what I was taught at a young age, when I grew up and began studying the Word of God for myself, I discovered that much of what I had been taught wasn’t true…but that is a historical issue spanning the last 150 years or so.
So you switched to what someone else told you. Do you really get what you believe from the total Word of God only or is it indeed flavored with the teachings of men? If it were the total Word of God I would be in agreement with you. I challenge you to honestly examine the scriptures I have presented. Even without my imput. Opps to late unless you wish to totaly dismiss what I have said. May my words be forever in your mind.

More blessings as you study God's total word and challenge the wisdom of men.
 
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dan p

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A covenant has stipulations, yes. Only a covenant of works involves quid pro quo contractual agreements, or "works for wages" agreements.

Paul points out, covenants can have these agreements -- he calls them "law". But Paul also points out covenants can also have something else -- unilateral promises. Finally Paul points to the New Covenant as one that has promises, but not law in its stipulations -- in Galatians 3.

Paul points out quite a different form of covenant that is obviously prevalent in ancient times.

The adoptive covenant is one.

So's the marriage covenant.

The family covenant is yet another.

Each one is blatantly obviously alluded to in Scripture.

The Scriptural covenant itself is referred to as well: "The New Covenant".

These covenants are based on (for the most part) unilateral love on the part of the person in the majority.

It's quite clear God would be the Person in the majority.

Nobody's said any different. In point of fact, the covenant of works is the one with Adam. Moses is actually part of the covenant of grace.

There's the operative word: "part". So, a question -- if a covenant is out of works, how can it be a covenant out of grace? Romans 11 doesn't seem to want the two to work together -- "otherwise grace is no more grace."


Yet to Paul, "What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works." Rom 9:30-32

Hi to all , and where is there a verse that Links the Body of Christ with any Covenant ?

There is none .

And Eph 2:12 , Paul says that Gentiles were STRANGERS from the Covenants of promise .
 
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from scratch

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Hi to all , and where is there a verse that Links the Body of Christ with any Covenant ?

There is none .

And Eph 2:12 , Paul says that Gentiles were STRANGERS from the Covenants of promise .
Mat 26:28, MK 14:24, LK 22:20 and ofcourse your citation. I notice it says were. So we must not be excluded from it as strangers anymore.
 
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heymikey80

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Hi to all , and where is there a verse that Links the Body of Christ with any Covenant ?

There is none .

And Eph 2:12 , Paul says that Gentiles were STRANGERS from the Covenants of promise .

In the case of a covenant, it is necessary to prove the death of the one who made it, 17 because a covenant is in force only when somebody has died; it never takes effect while the one who made it is living. 18 This is why even the first covenant was not put into effect without blood. 19 When Moses had proclaimed every command of the law to all the people, he took the blood of calves, together with water, scarlet wool and branches of hyssop, and sprinkled the scroll and all the people. 20 He said, “This is the blood of the covenant, which God has commanded you to keep.” 21 In the same way, he sprinkled with the blood both the tabernacle and everything used in its ceremonies. 22 In fact, the law requires that nearly everything be cleansed with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness.

23 It was necessary, then, for the copies of the heavenly things to be purified with these sacrifices, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these. 24 For Christ did not enter a sanctuary made with human hands that was only a copy of the true one; he entered heaven itself, now to appear for us in God’s presence. 25 Nor did he enter heaven to offer himself again and again, the way the high priest enters the Most Holy Place every year with blood that is not his own. 26 Otherwise Christ would have had to suffer many times since the creation of the world. But he has appeared once for all at the culmination of the ages to do away with sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Hebrews 9:16-26​
Not only is Christ's death connected with a covenant, it's inherent to the covenant concept and described as inherent by Scripture.
 
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swordmaster

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Do I really misunderstand you or are you really preaching that Christians are obligated to the law and in reality there is no new covenant, just an altered first covenant?


No, you got it....it was late that night and my mind wasn't working properly. I agree with you that there is only one covenant, and the New Covenant inaugurated in Christ's blood "did away" with the first...and thanks for the challenge...

More blessings as you study God's total word and challenge the wisdom of men.


It made me go study some more...that's what I like about interaction with others who CAN challenge you, that's how we grow.


Do you really get what you believe from the total Word of God only or is it indeed flavored with the teachings of men?


I try to be a Berean...I know that there are men out there that have more knowledge than I in the scriptures, that I can learn from, and that's what I try to do. Always putting scripture up to scripture, the hermeneutical way!


I challenge you to honestly examine the scriptures I have presented. Even without my imput. Opps to late unless you wish to totaly dismiss what I have said. May my words be forever in your mind.

Yep, you did, and thanks again!

By the way.....what IS the basics of "covenant theology" anyway, it sounds like I may have it wrong.

Blessings!
 
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