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Could someone answer this for me?

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acerbus80

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I have found this statement elsewhere, and am wondering about the accuracy of it. Considering the source, I'm very doubtful. Could anyone explain or clarify the accuracy of this for me please?

In the four Gospels which are included in our Canon, Jesus is not seen condemning slavery, subjugation of women and children, or many other injustices.

Thanks Guys (and Gals.)
 

seanHayden

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Ah come on now--

Don't you hate when people do that?

I mean, this guy has probably never verbally condemned many things explicitly or implicitly, are we to assume then that he supports them?

Further, we don't have everything Jesus ever said in scripture etc.

I mean this is just silly, and you can say hey, your silly man, seriously, your down right silly man. I know you're smart and all, but that is the dumbest thing any smart person has ever said. Don't even entertain them, just point out why its a fallacy and move on.
 
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acerbus80

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Ah come on now--

Don't you hate when people do that?

I mean, this guy has probably never verbally condemned many things explicitly or implicitly, are we to assume then that he supports them?

Further, we don't have everything Jesus ever said in scripture etc.

I mean this is just silly, and you can say hey, your silly man, seriously, your down right silly man. I know you're smart and all, but that is the dumbest thing any smart person has ever said. Don't even entertain them, just point out why its a fallacy and move on.
I understand that it's essentially fallacy, but I was curious if there were any specific instances in which Christ did condemn any of these actions. This is for an...essay...that I'm writing, and if possible, verses would be a great help.
Other than that, yes I definitley agree that even if Christ never did condemn them, it doesn't mean he supports them.
 
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tqpix

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In the four Gospels which are included in our Canon, Jesus is not seen condemning slavery, subjugation of women and children, or many other injustices.

Thanks Guys (and Gals.)
I won't be of much help, but I'll try to give a little input:

Slavery:

Slavery in OT times is NOT the same kind of slavery that happened to African-Americans. The OT talks about how to get slaves; the slaves in OT times had rights, and there is a time limit on how long they can be slaves (i.e., after six years of service, they are to be let go).

Subjugation of women:

Wives are to submit to their husbands, AND husbands are to submit to their wives. The only reason why women are below their husbands is because in a relationship, there has to be a leader: The husband is the leader not because God prefers men, but because God made man first, then woman; this is like how in many cultures, parents make their eldest child the leader--by putting the most responsibilities on him--over his siblings simply because he was born first.

Subjugation of children:

Even in todays world, children are below their parents. I can't see how this is any different than in OT times.
 
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catwoman2

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First of all, the disciples were astounded that He talked with a woman (John 4). He got very angry when they tried to keep kids away from Him. I say that's saying stuff about it. He talked to women. He defended them. I hear that the religious leaders in His day taught that people should never touch a woman, lest they become unclean. Pharisees supposedly prayed each day, Thank you, God, that I was not born a woman.

Secondly, He wasn't here to correct social injustices but to live a perfect life and take the sins of the world upon Him.
 
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PsH

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In the four Gospels which are included in our Canon, Jesus is not seen condemning slavery, subjugation of women and children, or many other injustices.


Ok im not going to reply in any great detal, i am avoiding conflict on this site, i have enough arguments on others an prefer just to have felowship and share in the word than have everything heated up.

so, the basics is this:

The above statment about how christ behaves in the gospels is to some extent true. This is because His work was very specific and the issues he dealt with were mainly to do with how we behave (even as slaves or masters, or prostetutes etc etc)

He didnt take the political high grounds like we so often do and didnt make a point of throwing his judgment around, his purpose was not to condemn but to save it.

He doesnt throw judgment around because His time to do that is yet to come.

However, the way in wich Jesus tels us to behave means that these issues are addresed because when we behave in a way jesus guides it isnt hard to be a slave because both slave and master treat each other like brothers in christ an with moral respect, the master is stil master and slave stil slave, yer slave obeys master for God's sake and master treats slave moraly and doesnt abuse his power.

The important thing is to know christs role, he came to save not to condemn, he will come again to judge and condemn

hope it helps, an people i dont want heated debate pls pls
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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I have found this statement elsewhere, and am wondering about the accuracy of it. Considering the source, I'm very doubtful. Could anyone explain or clarify the accuracy of this for me please?

In the four Gospels which are included in our Canon, Jesus is not seen condemning slavery, subjugation of women and children, or many other injustices.

Thanks Guys (and Gals.)

Its a weak statement which focuses only on the gospels and a select few modern injustices. Its better to broaden it to all the Scriptures. Jesus was 100% in agreement with the prophets of the OT and the LORD, all of whom condemned injustice.


Lamorak Des Galis
 
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thereselittleflower

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It is simply a logical fallacy to argue from silence, that since the Gospels are silent on the matter, that this means Jesus did not condemn it.

In addition, there are just forms of slavery and unjust forms of slavery.

We still use slavery today . . just deprivation of liberty . . they are called clean up crews from the local prison . . .



Peace
 
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