"But of that day and hour no one knows, no, not the angels of Heaven, but only My Father." (Mat 24:36)
Notice the specificity of this passage.
It is quite evident that God has already determined what day He will return on, even down to the very hour of when this event will unfold.
Some seem to think that He could have returned long ago, but hasn't because of our poor behavior. In fact, they even suggest that there were several occasions of when He could have returned.
Is this true? Does it really make sense? How could one deem God to be omniscient while making such claims about Him?
If Jesus' return is contingent on our behavior, and He could have come on several occasions, that would then mean that God really doesn't have a specific time in which He knows He will return. Hence the logical conclusion would then be to assert that Jesus really didn't mean what He had said concerning His return, that God knows the day and the hour of it. For, the idea of a return that could have taken place on several occasions presupposes that God really doesn't know when He will return, as the definiteness of His return is contingent on our behavior.
And what of all of the unfulfilled prophecies foretold in Revelation concerning the latter days? What sense would there have been in giving us such writings if Christ could have returned already? You see, if He could have returned that would then mean that He would have returned had the conditions for His return been met. But how could He have returned while leaving so many prophecies unfulfilled concerning the latter days, which play a major role in the coming of His return as contingencies that must precede its fulfillment?
Can anyone else see the problem here?
How do those who herald such ideas give an explanation for this logical inconsistency? Furthermore, upon what basis do they make such claims?
Notice the specificity of this passage.
It is quite evident that God has already determined what day He will return on, even down to the very hour of when this event will unfold.
Some seem to think that He could have returned long ago, but hasn't because of our poor behavior. In fact, they even suggest that there were several occasions of when He could have returned.
Is this true? Does it really make sense? How could one deem God to be omniscient while making such claims about Him?
If Jesus' return is contingent on our behavior, and He could have come on several occasions, that would then mean that God really doesn't have a specific time in which He knows He will return. Hence the logical conclusion would then be to assert that Jesus really didn't mean what He had said concerning His return, that God knows the day and the hour of it. For, the idea of a return that could have taken place on several occasions presupposes that God really doesn't know when He will return, as the definiteness of His return is contingent on our behavior.
And what of all of the unfulfilled prophecies foretold in Revelation concerning the latter days? What sense would there have been in giving us such writings if Christ could have returned already? You see, if He could have returned that would then mean that He would have returned had the conditions for His return been met. But how could He have returned while leaving so many prophecies unfulfilled concerning the latter days, which play a major role in the coming of His return as contingencies that must precede its fulfillment?
Can anyone else see the problem here?
How do those who herald such ideas give an explanation for this logical inconsistency? Furthermore, upon what basis do they make such claims?
