Hi there, this is my first post here 
I'm new and not sure if this is the correct place to post, sorry if it's not!
I've a few questions floating around in my head and here is one of them:
I'm a medical student and I am wondering why contraception is considered wrong even once you are married. I can understand that you are not meant to use it for premarital sex, but why when married? Don't get me wrong, personally I love children and can't wait to be old enough and financially able to have some, but it is not feasible in today's world at least to never have protected sex.
Some methods in which the egg is already fertilised and is unable to implant due to the contraceptive device I don't agree with and of course abortion, but condoms and contraceptive pills in my mind seem to be ok.
From a medical point of view, if I prescribe a contraceptive pill to a girl who is already having sex and in great risk of becoming pregnant is this wrong on my part, for trying to prevent a greater wrong? Or say in treating a patient with ovarian cysts, where the contraceptive pill may be used? What if said patient is also married and therefore sexually active?
Thanks for any replies!

I'm new and not sure if this is the correct place to post, sorry if it's not!
I've a few questions floating around in my head and here is one of them:
I'm a medical student and I am wondering why contraception is considered wrong even once you are married. I can understand that you are not meant to use it for premarital sex, but why when married? Don't get me wrong, personally I love children and can't wait to be old enough and financially able to have some, but it is not feasible in today's world at least to never have protected sex.
Some methods in which the egg is already fertilised and is unable to implant due to the contraceptive device I don't agree with and of course abortion, but condoms and contraceptive pills in my mind seem to be ok.
From a medical point of view, if I prescribe a contraceptive pill to a girl who is already having sex and in great risk of becoming pregnant is this wrong on my part, for trying to prevent a greater wrong? Or say in treating a patient with ovarian cysts, where the contraceptive pill may be used? What if said patient is also married and therefore sexually active?
Thanks for any replies!