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Cleaning Up Scripture...

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I see the bible as edited. Words missing, some added...

What verses do you feel have been added or altered?
(Besides the johannine comma)

I believe the stories of Jesus cursing the tree and his fit of rage in the temple court are altered to seem like Yahweh and Jesus akin.

Grace be with you.
 

Soulgazer

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I see the bible as edited. Words missing, some added...

What verses do you feel have been added or altered?
(Besides the johannine comma)

I believe the stories of Jesus cursing the tree and his fit of rage in the temple court are altered to seem like Yahweh and Jesus akin.

Grace be with you.
The whole thing is pretty well edited. At least three maybe four new testament books are out and out forgeries.

The good news is, while it was common to add or alter verses, it's very rare that verses are omitted. Origen was pretty good at quoting and analyzing entire chapters, so we can see how a couple of the Gospels looked circa 200AD.

There are efforts underway to reconstruct the Pauline epistles also.

You don't have to be a scholar to realize that Luke 9:47-48 was once connected with what is now Luke 17:1-2.

Sometimes you can detect interpolitions through the interupted flow of a paragraph as in 1 Peter 2: 12-20: (12) Having your behavior honest among the Gentiles, that, whereas they speak against you as evildoers, they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation. (15) For so is the will of God, that with well-doing ye may put to silence the ignorance of foolish men; (16) As free, and not using your liberty for a cloak of maliciousness, but as the servants of God. (19) For this is thankworthy, if a man for conscience toward God endure grief, suffering wrongfully. (20) For what glory is it if, when ye are buffeted for your faults, ye shall take it patiently? But if, when ye do well and suffer for it, ye take it patiently, this is acceptable with God"

I removed the obvious interpolations, and it seems like a clog has been removed from a drain. The paragraph flows in a new light, as if the author had just written it.

In the case of Jesus cursing the fig tree though, it is not the wording, but the interpretation that is lost. Luke is based on "the Gospel of the Lord", which is very anti-temple. The "fig tree" is the old temple religion that proved "unfruitful". This was supposed to portend the destruction of the Temple and Jerusalem alike.

Hope that helps.
 
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timbo3

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I see the bible as edited. Words missing, some added...

What verses do you feel have been added or altered?
(Besides the johannine comma)

I believe the stories of Jesus cursing the tree and his fit of rage in the temple court are altered to seem like Yahweh and Jesus akin.

Grace be with you.

Here are some examples of changes made to the Scriptures, thus altering them. For instance, 1 Timothy 3:16 has been altered to read: "God was manifest in the flesh" (King James Bible) to support the trinity doctrine instead of the accurate reading: "He was made manifest in the flesh"(New World Translation)

At 1 John 5:7, the words "in heaven, the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one" (King James Bible) were added again to give support to the trinity doctrine.

Regarding this Trinitarian passage, textual critic F. H. A. Scrivener wrote: “We need not hesitate to declare our conviction that the disputed words were not written by St. John: that they were originally brought into Latin copies in Africa from the margin, where they had been placed as a pious and orthodox gloss on ver. 8: that from the Latin they crept into two or three late Greek codices, and thence into the printed Greek text, a place to which they had no rightful claim.”—A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (Cambridge, 1883, third ed.), p. 654. The New King James Version reads concerning 1 John 5:7 in the center footnote section, that "only 4 or 5 very late mss.(manuscripts) contain these words in Greek."

The verses of 9-20 at Mark 16 were added by a later hand, and are found in ancient manuscripts the 5th century and newer, such as the Codex Alexandrius, Codex Ephraemi rescriptus and Bezae Codices but not in the Codex Vaticanus or Codex Sinaiticus, both of the fourth century.

At Mark 9:44 and 46, these verses were added, perhaps to give strength to the false religious doctrine of "hellfire", but are not in the most ancient manuscripts, such as the Codex Vaticanus or Codex Sinaiticus.

John 7:53-8:11 is also an addition, and is often called "the pericope adulterae". Daniel B. Wallace noted this: "The pericope adulterae is traditionally located after John 7.52. But it has been found in other locations as well. Among these are: after Luke 21.38 (f13); after John 7.36 (codex 225); after John 7.44 (some Georgian manuscripts); after John 8.12 (codex 115); after Luke 24.53 (the corrector of 1333); and at the end of the Gospel of John (f 1 [1 565 1076 1570 1582] Armenian mss)."(July 27, 2010, Center for the Study of New Testament Manuscripts)

Matthew 18:11 is left blank by some Bibles, as well as 23:14 and Luke 17:36.(New World Translation) Why ? Because of not being supported by the most ancient Biblical manuscripts, such as the Codex Vaticanus, Codex Sinaiticus, Papyrus Bodmer 14, 15 (P75), Greek of about the 2nd century C.E., Codex Alexandrine of the 5th century C.E. and the Freer Gospels of the 5th century C.E.

In addition, the words "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last" were added to Revelation 1:11, not receiving any support from some of the oldest Greek manuscripts, including the Alexandrine, Sinaitic, and Codex Ephraemi rescriptus. It is, therefore, omitted in many modern translations.
 
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cupid dave

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The whole thing is pretty well edited. At least three maybe four new testament books are out and out forgeries.

The good news is, while it was common to add or alter verses, it's very rare that verses are omitted. Origen was pretty good at quoting and analyzing entire chapters, so we can see how a couple of the Gospels looked circa 200AD.

There are efforts underway to reconstruct the Pauline epistles also.

You don't have to be a scholar to realize that Luke 9:47-48 was once connected with what is now Luke 17:1-2.

Sometimes you can detect interpolitions through the interupted flow of a paragraph as in 1 Peter 2: 12-20: (12) Having your behavior honest among the Gentiles, that, whereas they speak against you as evildoers, they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation. (15) For so is the will of God, that with well-doing ye may put to silence the ignorance of foolish men; (16) As free, and not using your liberty for a cloak of maliciousness, but as the servants of God. (19) For this is thankworthy, if a man for conscience toward God endure grief, suffering wrongfully. (20) For what glory is it if, when ye are buffeted for your faults, ye shall take it patiently? But if, when ye do well and suffer for it, ye take it patiently, this is acceptable with God"

I removed the obvious interpolations, and it seems like a clog has been removed from a drain. The paragraph flows in a new light, as if the author had just written it.

In the case of Jesus cursing the fig tree though, it is not the wording, but the interpretation that is lost. Luke is based on "the Gospel of the Lord", which is very anti-temple. The "fig tree" is the old temple religion that proved "unfruitful". This was supposed to portend the destruction of the Temple and Jerusalem alike.

Hope that helps.

First, the mention of the Fig Tree was a symbolic reference to Israel.

fig_leaf_x_2.jpg


The Torah, which is essentially what defines the jew was initially an oral language from memory.
The hand of a special priesthood was trained to encode their hands with the facts and details necessary to assure the telling of the Torah remained unchanged over time.

This is why the number (7) seven, (3) three, and (12) twelve are so inordinately common to the present text.



alphabethand.jpg


Secondly, from the start, there has always been a structred system i place to control the Bible even after it was set down in writing.

There was always a method used that denies your unsupported and erroneous suggestions.
 
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SwordoftheLord

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Here are some examples of changes made to the Scriptures, thus altering them. For instance, 1 Timothy 3:16 has been altered to read: "God was manifest in the flesh" (King James Bible) to support the trinity doctrine instead of the accurate reading: "He was made manifest in the flesh"(New World Translation)

At 1 John 5:7, the words "in heaven, the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one" (King James Bible) were added again to give support to the trinity doctrine.

Regarding this Trinitarian passage, textual critic F. H. A. Scrivener wrote: “We need not hesitate to declare our conviction that the disputed words were not written by St. John: that they were originally brought into Latin copies in Africa from the margin, where they had been placed as a pious and orthodox gloss on ver. 8: that from the Latin they crept into two or three late Greek codices, and thence into the printed Greek text, a place to which they had no rightful claim.”—A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (Cambridge, 1883, third ed.), p. 654. The New King James Version reads concerning 1 John 5:7 in the center footnote section, that "only 4 or 5 very late mss.(manuscripts) contain these words in Greek."

The verses of 9-20 at Mark 16 were added by a later hand, and are found in ancient manuscripts the 5th century and newer, such as the Codex Alexandrius, Codex Ephraemi rescriptus and Bezae Codices but not in the Codex Vaticanus or Codex Sinaiticus, both of the fourth century.

At Mark 9:44 and 46, these verses were added, perhaps to give strength to the false religious doctrine of "hellfire", but are not in the most ancient manuscripts, such as the Codex Vaticanus or Codex Sinaiticus.

John 7:53-8:11 is also an addition, and is often called "the pericope adulterae". Daniel B. Wallace noted this: "The pericope adulterae is traditionally located after John 7.52. But it has been found in other locations as well. Among these are: after Luke 21.38 (f13); after John 7.36 (codex 225); after John 7.44 (some Georgian manuscripts); after John 8.12 (codex 115); after Luke 24.53 (the corrector of 1333); and at the end of the Gospel of John (f 1 [1 565 1076 1570 1582] Armenian mss)."(July 27, 2010, Center for the Study of New Testament Manuscripts)

Matthew 18:11 is left blank by some Bibles, as well as 23:14 and Luke 17:36.(New World Translation) Why ? Because of not being supported by the most ancient Biblical manuscripts, such as the Codex Vaticanus, Codex Sinaiticus, Papyrus Bodmer 14, 15 (P75), Greek of about the 2nd century C.E., Codex Alexandrine of the 5th century C.E. and the Freer Gospels of the 5th century C.E.

In addition, the words "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last" were added to Revelation 1:11, not receiving any support from some of the oldest Greek manuscripts, including the Alexandrine, Sinaitic, and Codex Ephraemi rescriptus. It is, therefore, omitted in many modern translations.

The JW and Watchtower society translation the NWT, is about as heretical as you can get.... adding "a" and making God into god, in John 1:1 among many other adding and removing, which BTW is found is NO ancient manuscripts, but actually borders on blantant heresy.

ALSO BTW since you liked to use the KJV rendering is your post. The KJV matches like 95-96% of all the known manscripts we have today.... The NWT matches very little, and on some verses none at all (like the Jn 1:1 as I stated above).
 
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sotl-
I do prefer the KJV to other versions because they omit very interesting things. Galatians 5 KJV lists murder as act of sin, while other versions don't mention it. It raises a bunch of questions, and leads me to believe its to cover up the discrepancies that are made by adding complex ideas to a simple message.

soulgazer-
2:18, 3:1-7. Romans 13:1-7.
2 Corinthians 11:1-5 and 16-33 too.

timbo3-
Never was a fan of the telephone game, or being lost in translation. I appreciate all the info.

The ones that are victorious in the world get to write the history, and religious books.
I'd rather be a looser and save my soul.

Thanks everyone.
Peace.
 
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cupid dave

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The ones that are victorious in the world get to write the history, and religious books.
I'd rather be a looser and save my soul.

Thanks everyone.
Peace.


Often it is true, the victorious write the history that follows, but in this case, the victorious were the martyrs who were first saved from death by the Edit of Toleration in 313Ad and followed by Constantine, their champion, with the legalization of their brand of Christianity and their bibles which ultinately became the canon in 382AD after theo I made paganism, gnosticism, arianism, and astrology illegal.

I always smile when people today attempt to side with the arians and the gnostics who hid from the persecutors that were throwing the real Christians to the lions in order to "preach the gospel throughout all the world."

The idea that those preacher did not even have the right gospel and the cowards in the ancient shadows of the times did is funny.
 
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cupid dave

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The JW and Watchtower society translation the NWT, is about as heretical as you can get.... adding "a" and making God into god, in John 1:1 among many other adding and removing, which BTW is found is NO ancient manuscripts, but actually borders on blantant heresy.

ALSO BTW since you liked to use the KJV rendering is your post. The KJV matches like 95-96% of all the known manscripts we have today.... The NWT matches very little, and on some verses none at all (like the Jn 1:1 as I stated above).


Absolutely correct that the further we get away from translations of the past and entertain new revisions and interpretations of the canon the more we see an influence over the style, connotation, and even some actually denotations where the very meaning of the text is changed.

People forget that long before Christianity was established as universal over the Roman World, monasteries had been established by the most faithful of the Chriostian.
These men most certainly were actively coping the texts of the New Testament and recording the gospel as seen by the very generation of 32AD.

These were the back bone of a Christianity which would grow from their roots, not some group of academics in the 3rd and 4th century trying to critically sort through the writings as wise literary critics deciding what was authoritative and what was not.

In 382AD, when the survivors and children of the martyrs did canonize the New Testament, that final decision making was stamped the most reliable by the blood of their father in 303-313AD.
 
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timbo3

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The JW and Watchtower society translation the NWT, is about as heretical as you can get.... adding "a" and making God into god, in John 1:1 among many other adding and removing, which BTW is found is NO ancient manuscripts, but actually borders on blantant heresy.

ALSO BTW since you liked to use the KJV rendering is your post. The KJV matches like 95-96% of all the known manscripts we have today.... The NWT matches very little, and on some verses none at all (like the Jn 1:1 as I stated above).

It is not unusual for someone to bring up John 1:1 and condemn the New World Translation for its reading of "a god" concerning the "Word", Jesus Christ. Many fail to see that the apostle John intentionally left out the definite article ho (Greek, meaning "the") at John 1:1b.

John 1:1, 2 reads literally: "In beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God, and god was the Word. This (one) was in the beginning toward the God."(The New Testament of the Original Greek, Westcott and Hort, Greek master text, 1881)

It should be noted that every time before "Word", the definite article ho was placed. And that before "God", the definite article ho was placed as well, but not before the second instance of "god". Why? Was this an oversight by John ? No. How do we know that John meant that "a god was the Word" ?

Some years ago, an ancient manuscript in Sahidic Coptic came to light and is found in the Chester Beatty Library, located at Dublin, Ireland, that has John 1:1 in it. Why is this important ? The Coptic language was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus’ earthly ministry, and the Sahidic dialect was an early literary form of the language.

Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”

The Sahidic Coptic text is especially interesting for two reasons. First, as indicated above, it reflects an understanding of Scripture dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. Second, Coptic grammar is relatively close to English grammar in one important aspect.

The earliest translations of the Christian Greek Scriptures were into Syriac, Latin, and Coptic. Syriac and Latin, like the Greek of those days, do not have an indefinite article. Coptic, however, does. Moreover, scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1.

Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “In the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word.” (SAHIDIC COPTIC TEXT; P. CHESTER BEATTY-813; WITH INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION) Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.
 
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cybrwurm

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eachallberg say: Cleaning Up Scripture ... What verses do you feel have been added or altered? ...
.
wurm say: you should check out this book, if you haven't already:
.
The Orthodox Corruptionof Scripture:
The Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of the New Testament
BART D. EHRMAN / New York Oxford / OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS / 1993
.
It's available free-of-charge at this website:
http: // www .scribd. com/ doc/ 61789101/ Scripture-B-D-ehrman
[note: please remove spaces to get the web-address]
 
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Soulgazer

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It is not unusual for someone to bring up John 1:1 and condemn the New World Translation for its reading of "a god" concerning the "Word", Jesus Christ. Many fail to see that the apostle John intentionally left out the definite article ho (Greek, meaning "the") at John 1:1b.

John 1:1, 2 reads literally: "In beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God, and god was the Word. This (one) was in the beginning toward the God."(The New Testament of the Original Greek, Westcott and Hort, Greek master text, 1881)

It should be noted that every time before "Word", the definite article ho was placed. And that before "God", the definite article ho was placed as well, but not before the second instance of "god". Why? Was this an oversight by John ? No. How do we know that John meant that "a god was the Word" ?

Some years ago, an ancient manuscript in Sahidic Coptic came to light and is found in the Chester Beatty Library, located at Dublin, Ireland, that has John 1:1 in it. Why is this important ? The Coptic language was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus’ earthly ministry, and the Sahidic dialect was an early literary form of the language.

Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”

The Sahidic Coptic text is especially interesting for two reasons. First, as indicated above, it reflects an understanding of Scripture dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. Second, Coptic grammar is relatively close to English grammar in one important aspect.

The earliest translations of the Christian Greek Scriptures were into Syriac, Latin, and Coptic. Syriac and Latin, like the Greek of those days, do not have an indefinite article. Coptic, however, does. Moreover, scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1.

Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “In the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word.” (SAHIDIC COPTIC TEXT; P. CHESTER BEATTY-813; WITH INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION) Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.
GRS MEAD did a translation of the Proem based on contemporary understandings rather than semi modern Greek. It actually flows in a more poetic style, and is much easier to understand. Modern English erroneously mistranslates "Logos" into "Word" based on tradition. The contemporary meaning of "logos" would take a paragraph.

Translate "word" to Greek, you get λέξεις
translate "logos" to greek you get λογότυπα


1. In Beginning1 was Mind;2 p. 124

And Mind was with GOD.1 2. So2 Mind was God.
This3 was in Beginning with GOD.


This is much more in keeping with the Naasene origins and understanding of John.
Fragment 1, on John 1:3 (In John 1:3, “All things were made through him, and without him nothing was made.”) The sentence: "All things were made through him" means the world and what is in it. It excludes what is better than the world. The Aeon (i.e. the Fullness), and the things in it, were not made by the Word; they came into existence before the Word. . . “Without him, nothing was made” of what is in the world and the creation. . . "All things were made through Him," means that it was the Word who caused the Craftsman (Demiurge) to make the world, that is it was not the Word “from whom” or “by whom,” but the one “through whom (all things were made).”. . . It was not the Word who made all things, as if he were energized by another, for "through whom" means that another made them and the Word provided the energy.​
 
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timbo3

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The Greek word logos (G3056), according to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, means "something said (including the thought); by implication, a topic (subject of discourse), also reasoning (the mental faculty), or motive; by extention, a computation; specially, (with the article in John) the Divine Expression (i.e. Christ)."

Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (pg 380) says: "1. a word, yet not in the grammatical sense, but language, vox.i.e. a word which, uttered by the living voice, embodies a conception or idea. 2. what some one has said. 3. discourse, a. the act of speaking, speech."

According to Scriveners Textus Receptus of 1894, the Greek word logos, in its various forms (such as logon, logos, logo, logou, logois, logous etc) is used by Bible writers some 330 times in the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly though inaccurately called the New Testament), as does Westcott and Hort in their Greek master text, The New Testament in the Original Greek, 1881.

Thus, the central idea at John 1:1 of logos is Jesus Christ as "the Word" or chief spokesman for Jehovah God. The apostle Paul wrote that "God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets, has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things."(Heb 1:1, 2)

Jesus is also called the "Chief Agent of life" (Greek archegon ho zoes) by the apostle Peter at Acts 3:15 and the "Chief Agent and Perfecter of our faith" (Greek archegon kai teleioten) by the apostle Paul at Hebrews 12:2.
 
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cybrwurm

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On Feb25 eachallberg say: Cleaning Up Scripture... Peace, I see the bible as edited. Words missing, some added... What verses do you feel have been added or altered? (Besides the johannine comma)
wurm say: Also please note that the end of the third-gospel (ie. John) was *extensively* tampered with! Observe what the trinitarian-type redactors did to this literary masterpiece with their absurd and pointless additions:
.
Thomas answered him, "My Lord and my God!" Jesus said to him, "Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe." Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name. -- Jn 20:28-31 / RSV
.
The words "and my God" are an addition, as are the words "the Son of God". Now read the ending of the third gospel the way it was *meant* to be read:
Thomas answered him, "My Lord!" Jesus said to him, "Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe." Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christos, and that by believing you may have life in his name. -- John 20:28-31 / Prophet Version
Isn't that the one and only totally awesome ending to the good-news?! And isn't that also so much *more* consistent with the style, diction, and theology of the prophet John who actually wrote the good-news according to John? You bet your little booties it is! :) Moreover, the redactors/theologians were NOT satisfied with their little textual-mutilation (they never are), so they promptly set about to create a "newer and better" ending for John. Yes, chapter 21 in its entirety is a later romish-addition NOT authored by the prophet. You can tell that this is so both from the rather obvious over-emphasis on Peter, AND from the diction alone!!!
 
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RufustheRed

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The Greek word logos (G3056), according to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, means "something said (including the thought); by implication, a topic (subject of discourse), also reasoning (the mental faculty), or motive; by extention, a computation; specially, (with the article in John) the Divine Expression (i.e. Christ)."

Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (pg 380) says: "1. a word, yet not in the grammatical sense, but language, vox.i.e. a word which, uttered by the living voice, embodies a conception or idea. 2. what some one has said. 3. discourse, a. the act of speaking, speech."

According to Scriveners Textus Receptus of 1894, the Greek word logos, in its various forms (such as logon, logos, logo, logou, logois, logous etc) is used by Bible writers some 330 times in the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly though inaccurately called the New Testament), as does Westcott and Hort in their Greek master text, The New Testament in the Original Greek, 1881.

Thus, the central idea at John 1:1 of logos is Jesus Christ as "the Word" or chief spokesman for Jehovah God. The apostle Paul wrote that "God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets, has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things."(Heb 1:1, 2)

Jesus is also called the "Chief Agent of life" (Greek archegon ho zoes) by the apostle Peter at Acts 3:15 and the "Chief Agent and Perfecter of our faith" (Greek archegon kai teleioten) by the apostle Paul at Hebrews 12:2.

What is your evidence, please, that Paul wrote the Book to the Hebrews?

Thanks.

Rufus :wave:
 
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timbo3

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What is your evidence, please, that Paul wrote the Book to the Hebrews?

Thanks.

Rufus :wave:

The canonicity of certain individual books of the Christian Greek Scriptures has been disputed by some, but the arguments against them are very weak. For critics to reject, for example, the book of Hebrews simply because it does not bear Paul’s name and because it differs slightly in style from his other letters is shallow reasoning.

B. F. Westcott, (Biblical scholar and writer of the Greek master text, The New Testament in the Original Greek, 1881),observed that “the canonical authority of the Epistle is independent of its Pauline authorship.” (The Epistle to the Hebrews, 1892, p. lxxi) Objection on the grounds of unnamed writership is far outweighed by the presence of Hebrews in the Chester Beatty Papyrus No. 2 (P46) (dated within 150 years of Paul’s death), which contains it along with eight other letters of Paul.

The internal evidence of the book is all in support of Paul’s writership. The writer was in Italy and was associated with Timothy. These facts fit Paul. (Heb. 13:23, 24) Furthermore, the doctrine is typical of Paul, though the arguments are presented from a Jewish viewpoint, designed to appeal to the strictly Hebrew congregation to which the letter was addressed.

On this point Clarke’s Commentary, Volume 6, page 681, says concerning Hebrews: “That it was written to Jews, naturally such, the whole structure of the epistle proves. Had it been written to the Gentiles, not one in ten thousand of them could have comprehended the argument, because unacquainted with the Jewish system; the knowledge of which the writer of this epistle everywhere supposes.” This helps to account for the difference of style when compared with Paul’s other letters, who was thoroughly knowledgeable of Jewish law.

The discovery in about 1930 of the Chester Beatty Papyrus No. 2 (P46) has provided further evidence of Paul’s writership. Commenting on this papyrus codex, which was written only about a century and a half after Paul’s death, the eminent British textual critic Sir Frederic Kenyon said: “It is noticeable that Hebrews is placed immediately after Romans (an almost unprecedented position), which shows that at the early date when this manuscript was written no doubt was felt as to its Pauline authorship.”

On this same question, McClintock and Strong’s Cyclopedia states pointedly: “There is no substantial evidence, external or internal, in favor of any claimant to the authorship of this epistle except Paul.”(Hebrews, Epistle To, pg 147)

An due to Paul's closeness to Timothy (Acts16:1, 3), calling him "a genuine child in the faith"(1 Tim 1:2), Paul is the only Bible writer, besides Luke in Acts (whereby Timothy is attached to Paul), that mentions him by name, which is found at Hebrews 13:23 and of which Paul also calls him "my fellow worker".(Rom 16:21)
 
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Soulgazer

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The canonicity of certain individual books of the Christian Greek Scriptures has been disputed by some, but the arguments against them are very weak. For critics to reject, for example, the book of Hebrews simply because it does not bear Paul’s name and because it differs slightly in style from his other letters is shallow reasoning.

B. F. Westcott, (Biblical scholar and writer of the Greek master text, The New Testament in the Original Greek, 1881),observed that “the canonical authority of the Epistle is independent of its Pauline authorship.” (The Epistle to the Hebrews, 1892, p. lxxi) Objection on the grounds of unnamed writership is far outweighed by the presence of Hebrews in the Chester Beatty Papyrus No. 2 (P46) (dated within 150 years of Paul’s death), which contains it along with eight other letters of Paul.

The internal evidence of the book is all in support of Paul’s writership. The writer was in Italy and was associated with Timothy. These facts fit Paul. (Heb. 13:23, 24) Furthermore, the doctrine is typical of Paul, though the arguments are presented from a Jewish viewpoint, designed to appeal to the strictly Hebrew congregation to which the letter was addressed.

On this point Clarke’s Commentary, Volume 6, page 681, says concerning Hebrews: “That it was written to Jews, naturally such, the whole structure of the epistle proves. Had it been written to the Gentiles, not one in ten thousand of them could have comprehended the argument, because unacquainted with the Jewish system; the knowledge of which the writer of this epistle everywhere supposes.” This helps to account for the difference of style when compared with Paul’s other letters, who was thoroughly knowledgeable of Jewish law, who was thoroughly knowledgeable of Jewish law.

The discovery in about 1930 of the Chester Beatty Papyrus No. 2 (P46) has provided further evidence of Paul’s writership. Commenting on this papyrus codex, which was written only about a century and a half after Paul’s death, the eminent British textual critic Sir Frederic Kenyon said: “It is noticeable that Hebrews is placed immediately after Romans (an almost unprecedented position), which shows that at the early date when this manuscript was written no doubt was felt as to its Pauline authorship.”

On this same question, McClintock and Strong’s Cyclopedia states pointedly: “There is no substantial evidence, external or internal, in favor of any claimant to the authorship of this epistle except Paul.”(Hebrews, Epistle To, pg 147)

An due to Paul's closeness to Timothy (Acts16:1, 3), calling him "a genuine child in the faith"(1 Tim 1:2), Paul is the only Bible writer, besides Luke in Acts (whereby Timothy is attached to Paul), that mentions him by name, which is found at Hebrews 13:23 and of which Paul also calls him "my fellow worker".(Rom 16:21)
To me, that very argument would be a sign that the author was not Paul. Paul and James had an "agreement" that Paul would preach only to the gentiles. (1 Tim) is a second century catholic writing, and is really a non-entity in determining the authorship of Hebrews. I think Origen said it best with his statement "God alone knows".





Reconstructed Galatians

2:1 After fourteen years T
I went up to Jerusalem; T
2 But I went according to revelation,
and I set before them T
the canon of the gospel T
but apart to those of repute,
fearing that I should go or had gone (T)
for nothing. 6 (T)
3 But not even Titus, T
who was with me, T
being a Greek, T
was compelled to be circumcised: T
4 But because of those who crept in T
to spy out this liberty of ours T<------- Christians following James and Peter railed against Paul.
which we enjoy in Chrestos, T
so that they might enslave us - T
5 To these not even for an hour T
we yielded in subjection,
That the truth of the gospel
might continue with you.
6 But from those reputed
to be something -
those of repute conferred nothing to me.
7a But against them,
when they had seen that I was entrusted
the gospel of the uncircumcision,
9b Peter, James and John , 7 (T) Hier.
who regard themselves pillars, (T)
gave to me the right of fellowship: (T)
- to me the nations
- to them the circumcision! 8 <-----Paul's side anyway. In Acts, James is still converting gentiles
10 Only they would have it ----------- to Jewish law.
that I should remember the poor;
which I had been cautious to do.
11 Now when Peter came to Antioch
I confronted him to the face, T
because he was to be blamed. (T)
12 Prior to certain ones coming from James,
he was eating with the nations;
But when they came,
He withdrew and segregated himself,
being afraid of those of the circumcision. T
14 When I saw they walked not honestly T
according to the truth of the gospel, T
I said to Peter before all,
&#8220;If you, being a Jew, live like the nations,
Why do you urge the nations
to be judaizing?&#8221;
16 A man is not justified T
by the works of the law, T
but by the faith. T
 
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timbo3

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To me, that very argument would be a sign that the author was not Paul. Paul and James had an "agreement" that Paul would preach only to the gentiles. (1 Tim) is a second century catholic writing, and is really a non-entity in determining the authorship of Hebrews. I think Origen said it best with his statement "God alone knows".

The apostle Paul wrote 14 of the 27 "books" of the Christian Greek Scriptures, with 13 of these having his name and greeting at the beginning of his letters, but you are asserting that both Hebrews and 1 Timothy were not written by Paul. The evidence speaks otherwise. Paul opens 1 Timothy with the words: "Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus under command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus, our hope, to Timothy, a genuine child in the faith:"(1 Tim 1:1, 2)

Hence, Paul opens this letter with his name, identifying him as the writer and to whom it was addressed, just as a salutation in any given letter, except that Paul was like a father to Timothy, calling him "a genuine child in the faith". Thus, he establishes himself as the writer, just as James of the book of James, Peter of both 1st and 2nd Peter, as well that of Jude.

Of Hebrews, there is a good reason as to why he may not have identified himself as the writer. It is possible that Paul may have deliberately omitted his name in writing to the Hebrew Christians in Judea, since his name had been made an object of hatred by the Jews there. (Acts 21:28)

Of the three books of 1st, 2nd, and 3rd John, there is no mention as to who the writer is, but is based on both internal and external evidence. The Papyrus Chester Beatty 2 (P46), is dated around 200 C.E., and therefore is about 150 years removed from when Paul had written his letters, with the book of Hebrews being placed after Romans in this papayrus codex, making a firm case for Paul as the writer.

Paul was not sent just to the Gentiles or people of the nations, but Jesus said to Ananias in a vision concerning Paul (at that he was called Saul, his Hebrew name): "Be on your way, because this man is a chosen vessel to me to bear my name to the nations as well as to kings and the sons of Israel. For I shall show him plainly how many things he must suffer for my name.&#8221;(Acts 9:15, 16) Thus Paul, as message bearer of Jesus Christ and the "kingdom"(Acts 28:31), was assigned to both Jews that were living away from the land of Israel and "to the nations" or Gentiles.
 
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Soulgazer

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The apostle Paul wrote 14 of the 27 "books" of the Christian Greek Scriptures, with 13 of these having his name and greeting at the beginning of his letters, but you are asserting that both Hebrews and 1 Timothy were not written by Paul. The evidence speaks otherwise. Paul opens 1 Timothy with the words: "Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus under command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus, our hope, to Timothy, a genuine child in the faith:"(1 Tim 1:1, 2)

Hence, Paul opens this letter with his name, identifying him as the writer and to whom it was addressed, just as a salutation in any given letter, except that Paul was like a father to Timothy, calling him "a genuine child in the faith". Thus, he establishes himself as the writer, just as James of the book of James, Peter of both 1st and 2nd Peter, as well that of Jude.

Of Hebrews, there is a good reason as to why he may not have identified himself as the writer. It is possible that Paul may have deliberately omitted his name in writing to the Hebrew Christians in Judea, since his name had been made an object of hatred by the Jews there. (Acts 21:28)

Of the three books of 1st, 2nd, and 3rd John, there is no mention as to who the writer is, but is based on both internal and external evidence. The Papyrus Chester Beatty 2 (P46), is dated around 200 C.E., and therefore is about 150 years removed from when Paul had written his letters, with the book of Hebrews being placed after Romans in this papayrus fragment, making a firm case for Paul as the writer.

Paul was not sent just to the Gentiles or people of the nations, but Jesus said to Ananias in a vision concerning Paul (at that he was called Saul, his Hebrew name): "Be on your way, because this man is a chosen vessel to me to bear my name to the nations as well as to kings and the sons of Israel. For I shall show him plainly how many things he must suffer for my name.&#8221;(Acts 9:15, 16) Thus Paul, as message bearer of Jesus Christ and the "kingdom"(Acts 28:31), was assigned to both Jews that were living away from the land of Israel and "to the nations" or Gentiles.
I know what the opening of Timothy says. A forged $100.00 bill says it's a $100.00 bill also. Sadly the catholic movement of the second century had no problem forging a multitude of scriptures, three or four of which made it into the New Testament.

Timothy 1&2 and Titus were forged in Paul's name to counter Marcionism, whose followers would only accept Paul.

We know from his genuine letters, that Paul was friends with, and actively supported women preachers. The Marcionites followed this tradition, which the catholic movement felt was an abomination.(§5. The very women of these heretics, how wanton they are! For they are bold enough to teach, to dispute, to enact exorcisms, to undertake cures-it may be even to baptize. ~Tertullian)

1 Timothy is one of the three epistles known collectively as the pastorals (1 Timothy, 2 Timothy, and Titus). They were not included in Marcion's canon of ten epistles assembled c. 140 CE. Against Wallace, there is no certain quotation of these epistles before Irenaeus c. 170 CE.
Norman Perrin summarises four reasons that have lead critical scholarship to regard the pastorals as inauthentic (The New Testament: An Introduction, pp. 264-5):
Vocabulary. While statistics are not always as meaningful as they may seem, of 848 words (excluding proper names) found in the Pastorals, 306 are not in the remainder of the Pauline corpus, even including the deutero-Pauline 2 Thessalonians, Colossians, and Ephesians. Of these 306 words, 175 do not occur elsewhere in the New Testament, while 211 are part of the general vocabulary of Christian writers of the second century. Indeed, the vocabulary of the Pastorals is closer to that of popular Hellenistic philosophy than it is to the vocabulary of Paul or the deutero-Pauline letters. Furthermore, the Pastorals use Pauline words ina non-Pauline sense: dikaios in Paul means "righteous" and here means "upright"; pistis, "faith," has become "the body of Christian faith"; and so on.
Literary style. Paul writes a characteristically dynamic Greek, with dramatic arguments, emotional outbursts, and the introduction of real or imaginary opponents and partners in dialogue. The Pastorals are in a quiet meditative style, far more characteristic of Hebrews or 1 Peter, or even of literary Hellenistic Greek in general, than of the Corinthian correspondence or of Romans, to say nothing of Galatians.
The situation of the apostle implied in the letters. Paul's situation as envisaged in the Pastorals can in no way be fitted into any reconstruction of Paul's life and work as we know it from the other letters or can deduce it from the Acts of the Apostles. If Paul wrote these letters, then he must have been released from his first Roman imprisonment and have traveled in the West. But such meager tradition as we have seems to be more a deduction of what must have happened from his plans as detailed in Romans than a reflection of known historical reality.
The letters as reflecting the characteristics of emergent Catholocism. The arguments presented above are forceful, but a last consideration is overwhelming, namely that, together with 2 Peter, the Pastorals are of all the texts in the New Testament the most distinctive representatives of the emphases of emergent Catholocism. The apostle Paul could no more have written the Pastorals than the apostle Peter could have written 2 Peter.
The arguments that establish the inauthenticity of the pastoral epistles are expounded by Kummel in his Introduction to the New Testament, pp. 371-84. In addition to providing more detail to the arguments stated by Perrin, Kummel adds a few more considerations.
~Earlychristianwritings.com

It's relatively easy; Marcion introduced the Pauline corpus to the Christian world. If it's not in Marcion's canon---it ain't Paul.
 
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