Ok, personally I'm a fan of closed communion to a point, because if people don't know what they're doing when they take communion, it can be bad for them. My question relates directly to the First last supper.
Christ knew good and well that his betrayer, whom satan himself would possess, would dip the sop with him and his brethren, yet he did allow him to do that. On one hand I think it was so that he could fill up the measure of his wickedness, does that sound reasonable?
Anyway, if Christ allowed that awful man to commune in the very first last supper, should any person who claims to believe in Christ be forbidden from taking part in communion? I mean, the fact that Judas Iscariot took communion with Cephas and John and the rest, did not defile the others who took the communion, only the betrayer himself.
Any thoughts on this, was Christ practicing closed or open communion, and how can we relate what we learn about that to our current practices?
Christ knew good and well that his betrayer, whom satan himself would possess, would dip the sop with him and his brethren, yet he did allow him to do that. On one hand I think it was so that he could fill up the measure of his wickedness, does that sound reasonable?
Anyway, if Christ allowed that awful man to commune in the very first last supper, should any person who claims to believe in Christ be forbidden from taking part in communion? I mean, the fact that Judas Iscariot took communion with Cephas and John and the rest, did not defile the others who took the communion, only the betrayer himself.
Any thoughts on this, was Christ practicing closed or open communion, and how can we relate what we learn about that to our current practices?