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can the non-elect be saved??

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FreeGrace2

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This is what WT responded to:
OK, could you be a bit more specific, please? That would be ever so helpful.

Your OP is all over the place... up, down... yes, no... maybe, maybe not.
Sounds as if you are that. The OP is very specific: how do Calvinists explain WHY Jesus said what He did to a crowd of those He described as refusing to come to Him for life. With emphasis on the subjunctive mood.

And you want to whimper about not saying something that will support your Calvinistic view?
Ah, what makes you think that I have a Calvinistic view? And why did add the snarky bit about "whimpering" when you know there isn't a bit of it in the OP?

Also, your first post was extremely Calvinistic.

You mention "obeying" in this last post. Didn't Jesus say, "Believe, and be saved?" Sounds like a decision left to be made by anyone in the entire world... not just a select group.
I did? Please point that out. in my 3 previous posts, there is no "obeying" in any of them.

At this point, you are very close to being reported for trying to hijack the OP. Either address it and post somewhere else, or you will be reported.
 
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FreeGrace2

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If the non-elect can be saved, they wouldn't be non-elect, but instead, be elect.
The OP wasn't asking for opinions. Would you please address the OP instead?

Explain WHY Jesus said what He did to the crowd He said it to, if you can.

Or you may post elsewhere. I'm not about to allow Calvinists to hijack this OP. There are forum rules against that sort of thing.
 
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FreeGrace2

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OP...elect = saved.
Calvinist...elect=those God will save.

OP...non-elect = unsaved
Calvinist...non-elect = those who God will not save.

Somehow, the OP thinks he can conflate the two and then pronounce victory.
I'll make this very clear to you, then. Either address the OP or you may post elsewhere. You know the rules against hijacking a thread. Which seems to be occurring.

Hijackers will be reported.

Well, I guess that's one way to do it.
The only way to keep this OP on track.
 
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Skala

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Even Ignatius, with no dog in the fight, recognized and pointed out your flawed logic and argumentation.
 
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FreeGrace2

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The OP's argument affirms open theism.
This is an unsolicited and unsubstantiated opinion. Either address the OP or you may post elsewhere.

It implies God doesn't know who the saved will be, until the moment in time that they become saved. Thus, only then does he "know them" as "the elect"
You haven't addressed the OP. Explain WHY Jesus said what He said to the crowd who He said it to. Or be reported for hijacking the thread.
 
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Skala

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The OP wasn't asking for opinions. Would you please address the OP instead?
You haven't addressed the OP. Which is a forum rule violation. Either address it or you may post elsewhere.

I'll make this very clear to you, then. Either address the OP or you may post elsewhere. )

So now you're a big fan of this rule? Curious why you haven't ever obeyed it.


That being said, the OP was addressed (and refuted quite easily) a long time ago.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Not exactly. They would say God has perfect knowledge of all known facts. Since the future hasn't happened yet, God cannot know it.
Please stop trying to hijack this thread. You know the rules very well.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Even Ignatius, with no dog in the fight, recognized and pointed out your flawed logic and argumentation.
At this point all I've seen is opinions of the OP, but no substantive material on WHY it might be. And you are wrong about Ignat. He seems to be on the side of Calvinism regarding who the non-elect are.

So, you're on very thin ice if you want to continue posting here. So, can you explain WHY Jesus said what He did to the crowd He said it to? Or not?

If you can, please do. If not, post elsewhere, please.
 
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FreeGrace2

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The problem goes to both sides. But this time on this thread I'm not going to allow a lot of Calvinistic opinions rule the day. Either address the OP or don't post.

That being said, the OP was addressed (and refuted quite easily) a long time ago.
No. It was criticized by opinion without a shred of substance.

In fact, there isn't anything to refute, so that must be a figment of an imagination to think it was. In fact, it was an invitation to explain WHY Jesus said what He did to the crowd He said it to.

And include the significance of the subjunctive mood, if you would.

Anything else is an attempt to hijack the thread.
 
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G

guuila

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I disagree with your assessment.
 
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Skala

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So, can you explain WHY Jesus said what He did to the crowd He said it to? Or not?

Sure. When you're preaching the gospel, you simply tell people that if they want to do such and such, they can.

Does Bob want to repent and be saved? If so, fantastic! Go right ahead Bob! Nobody is stopping you!

I'm not sure what you think the texts you quoted prove.

In a practical sense, there is no other way to preach the gospel. At present state, the audience was unbelievers. But Jesus kept on preaching the gospel to them. He was saying it to them because the message is the method of salvation. "I am saying these to you so that you might be saved". That's an evangelists job. To preach the message so that the hearers might be saved.

There's nothing inherently non-Calvinistic about that one way or the other. It doesn't prove anything, other than Jesus' obedience to preach the gospel the lost.

He simply preached the message, and lets the Holy Spirit do His work. He preaches the message, and anyone who wants to be saved by repenting and trusting in Him can do so. If they are unwilling, they are judged for their unwillingness.

Pretty basic stuff. I'm not sure what you think you have proven.
 
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Charis kai Dunamis

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Can you refute this from Scripture? And you can't refer to the WCF.

Yes. Ephesians 1:4 says God chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world. Therefore God's choosing of us takes place before we believe. Therefore election is a thing of surety, not of possibility. It is a divine operation and therefore not subject to possibility.

That would be problematic for…you, not for me. Given what Jesus SAID. Which is why I posited the challenge.

It's not problematic for the reason I originally stated. Further, the context is clearly of one not even to the present crowd, but extends to all of Israel. Jesus was pleading with His own people to believe who He actually was, their Messiah. And now we have to get into issues regarding the Christ consciousness... Luke 2:52 says He grew in "wisdom and stature" which would seem to indicate that His knowledge as a man was somehow less than omniscient, and He relied on the Spirit for His directing and action. Is it possible here in John 5 that Jesus still thought and hoped the Jews might accept Him?

OK, then, why isn't it just as "presumptous" to believe that He was talking to "future believers" all?

...because of what we are told in Ephesians 1.

And you have the additional problem in that Jesus used the subjunctive mood, not indicative mood. He was speaking in possibilities, not actualities.

You can review that mood here: Course II, Lesson 9

Would you address that problem of yours next?

All the subjunctive shows here in addition to the preceding subordinating conjunction is to show purpose. The reason why He says X is so Y might happen. Jesus is intending for Y to happen based on ἵνα. What the subjunctive here proves for your case, I have no idea.
 
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Hammster

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OP...elect = saved.
Calvinist...elect=those God will save.

OP...non-elect = unsaved
Calvinist...non-elect = those who God will not save.

Somehow, the OP thinks he can conflate the two and then pronounce victory.

Well, I guess that's one way to do it.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I never said that proved anything. And your answer is familiarly vague. The crowd were obviously rejectors of the Messiah. Your challenge is to explain WHY Jesus mentioned what He did so that they "may be saved" (subjunctive mood). If they were all pre-believing elect, in your view, WHY the subjunctive mood instead of the indicative mood? Please explain that.

And if they were never to believe, WHY did He say "so that you may be saved"?

You still haven't addressed those specific questions.

Your answer is just a vague explanation of evangelism. Please be specific regarding that crowd.

Non-responsive. His comment about "that you may be saved" wasn't "selective". You need to deal with both the subjunctive mood and the fact that without a doubt there were those who would never believe, in spite of what Jesus said to them.

There's nothing inherently non-Calvinistic about that one way or the other. It doesn't prove anything, other than Jesus' obedience to preach the gospel the lost.
It's already been established in other threads that there is no good news to the non-elect. Given your understanding of the non-elect, WHY did Jesus say what He said to the crowd He said it to?

He simply preached the message, and lets the Holy Spirit do His work. He preaches the message, and anyone who wants to be saved by repenting and trusting in Him can do so. If they are unwilling, they are judged for their unwillingness.
Jesus was very specific: "so that you may be saved". Can you address WHY He said that?

Pretty basic stuff. I'm not sure what you think you have proven.
At this point, there is evidence that Calvinists are not able to actually deal with the question of WHY Jesus said what He did to those He said it to.

You mentioned "at the present stage", the audience was unbelievers. But you didn't face the problem of what you consider the non-elect. So again, WHY did Jesus say "so that you may be saved" to non-elect people?

You either have to admit that everyone in the crowd was a pre-believing elect one, or that there is nothing to hinder any unbeliever from believing.

Yet Calvinism claims that Christ didn't die for any of the non-elect, and Jesus used the subjunctive mood when He said "so that you may be saved".

Please explain that.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Except the "us" of 1:4 is defined clearly as "us who believe" in v.19. So the verse is about God choosing believers to be holy and blameless. Nothing about being chosen for salvation here. You've missed the point entirely.

It's not problematic for the reason I originally stated. Further, the context is clearly of one not even to the present crowd, but extends to all of Israel.
Hold on. Jesus was addressing a specific crowd. Please don't deflect from that. The "you" really meant each one of them. Or prove that His use of "you" was somehow "selective" from what He said.

This has nothing to do with the OP at all.

...because of what we are told in Ephesians 1.
Non-responsive to the OP. And irrelevant as well. Eph 1 doesn't refute anything about the OP.

Sure, I'll explain it to you. X refers to believing in Him, and Y refers to salvation.

But you haven't explained WHY He said that to a crowd of negative unbelievers.

Do you think all of them were just pre-believing elect, or were some of them just the non-elect in your view?

Please deal with WHY He said "so that YOU may be save" to the non-elect, you know, those for whom He wasn't gonna die.
 
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FreeGrace2

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This is just a repeat of your post #15. Non-responsive to the OP. Please address the OP or post elsewhere.
 
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Charis kai Dunamis

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Except the "us" of 1:4 is defined clearly as "us who believe" in v.19. So the verse is about God choosing believers to be holy and blameless. Nothing about being chosen for salvation here. You've missed the point entirely.

Questions for you:
1. Does the election of certain individuals take place before the foundation of the world? yes or no.

2. Before the foundation of the world, had you or I believed in anything yet? yes or no.

The rest of your post was not relevant to the OP either, then. So I omitted it.
 
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