I have seen the common slippery slope of relating homosexuals with animals and children, and I have seen the rebuttal homosexuals can consent while the others can't. What I haven't see is why? (Please note due to ways CF rules are interpreted, any discussion of the non-consenting side should involved children as examples and not animals, such dicussion of the animals would be breaking a rule).
With no why present, with no set criteria needed to consent alongside showing that homosexuals meet this criteria, could not one just say that homosexuals can't consent. A very basic way of stating this would be anyone wanting to have sex with someone of the same sex isn't mentally fit to have sex. Of course, no citations are given, but if one wanted to make a version of this fit to be a true Poe (or if you actually used this as part of what you accept), they could show things such as brain differences, and create an arbitrary requirement to consent which homosexuals don't max using the known differences between homosexuals and heterosexuals.
And yes, this same argument applies in reverse, one could use it to say that heterosexuals can't consent.
So we say a heterosexual adult can consent, that a homosexual adult can consent, but that a child cannot. But why, what are the distinguishing factors? Age and being of the human race? While this would seem to take care of the issue, these were designed not from the ground up, but from where you wanted to end up. You assumed your end point, and created a criteria which would fit it. We could say because the law says so or because it is what is the social norm, yet most who say this don't agree with the cultures in which children can (or could, for historic settings) have sex because it was both legal and socially accepted. And even those who think that if the culture supports it, it is ok, unless they are a full cultural relavist, they couldn't use the current law or social acceptable practices as a reason for something being right or wrong.
So, what are the differences?
Once again, I would like to reinforce that dicussion of the animal portion of this thread is, as I have already said, not allowed on CF.
With no why present, with no set criteria needed to consent alongside showing that homosexuals meet this criteria, could not one just say that homosexuals can't consent. A very basic way of stating this would be anyone wanting to have sex with someone of the same sex isn't mentally fit to have sex. Of course, no citations are given, but if one wanted to make a version of this fit to be a true Poe (or if you actually used this as part of what you accept), they could show things such as brain differences, and create an arbitrary requirement to consent which homosexuals don't max using the known differences between homosexuals and heterosexuals.
And yes, this same argument applies in reverse, one could use it to say that heterosexuals can't consent.
So we say a heterosexual adult can consent, that a homosexual adult can consent, but that a child cannot. But why, what are the distinguishing factors? Age and being of the human race? While this would seem to take care of the issue, these were designed not from the ground up, but from where you wanted to end up. You assumed your end point, and created a criteria which would fit it. We could say because the law says so or because it is what is the social norm, yet most who say this don't agree with the cultures in which children can (or could, for historic settings) have sex because it was both legal and socially accepted. And even those who think that if the culture supports it, it is ok, unless they are a full cultural relavist, they couldn't use the current law or social acceptable practices as a reason for something being right or wrong.
So, what are the differences?
Once again, I would like to reinforce that dicussion of the animal portion of this thread is, as I have already said, not allowed on CF.