can anyone answer these questions?

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son, and why it's not applied for all mankind?

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?

6- what must we do to a person who killed?

7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

1) Go to: http://www.plim.org/JesusOrigin.htm
Its very detailed.

2) Jesus Family Tree: http://www.abetterhope.com/whois/gen-1.htm.
From Adam to Jesus

3) Son of God - crucified for sins - John 1:29, Mark 1:1, Luke 1:32/ Jesus is God and is the only possible person since he was 100% God and 100% human who could be the perfect sinless sacrafice. No human except Jesus is sinless and is God himself.

4) Jesus in tomb for three nights; Matthew 12:40

5) What happens to all people: Revelation 20:11-14

6) Ten Commandments- The sixth one - "you shall not murder". In society they go to prison or they are executed. This is their civil duty. God forgives if they repent but they are still accountable on earth for their actions.

7) If Jesus went pass 40 days? Since He is God he could have stayed alive.

UIN said:

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

The New Testament was written in Greek because that was the language of common use at that time. It needed to be written in a language that the whole world could understand to spread the Gospel.

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

The Lord Jesus was both Son of God and Son of Man -

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son, and why it's not applied for all mankind?

Hebr 9:22 For without the shedding of blood is no remission.
Crucifixion was an accursed death and Christ took upon Him the cursed death His people deserved
It is not applied to all mankind because Luke 10:21...even so Father; for it seemed good in Thy sight

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

Mtt.12:40

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?
Matt.25:31-46
Or do you mean what happens to people who lived before Gospel times? The Old Testament believers were saved the same way we are; they believed in a Savour who was to come, just as we believe in a Savour Who came, and will come again.

6- what must we do to a person who killed?
According to God's Word the civil ruler has the duty to put those that are guilty of first degree murder to death. Gen. 9:5,6

7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

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God was able to keep him alive. We also read of Elijah fasting for that long without ill effects.

UIN said:

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

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Jesus didn't write the New Testament. It was written after the Resurrection. Greek was the language of learning and commerce at that time.

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

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Because Christ is the incarnation and is both fully God and fully man; two natures united in one essence. The genealogy is shown so that one may know that he is from the line of David.

From http://www.orthodox.net/questions/christs_geneology_1.html
Why is the genealogy in the first chapter of Matthew of Joseph, since he was only the foster father of Christ? Or, as St John Chrysostom puts it:

"But whence is it manifest that He is of David?" one may say. For if He was not sprung of a man, but from a woman only, and the Virgin hath not her genealogy traced, how shall we know that He was of David's race? Thus, there are two things inquired; both why His mother's genealogy is not recited, and wherefore it can be that Joseph is mentioned by them, who hath no part in the birth: since the latter seems to be superfluous, and the former a defect." (Chrysostom - Homilies on Matthew, Homily 2. Section 7)


"Of which then is it necessary to speak first? How the Virgin is of David. How then shall we know that she is of David? Hearken unto God, telling Gabriel to go unto "a virgin betrothed to a man (whose name was Joseph), of the house and lineage of David." What now wouldest thou have plainer than this, when thou hast heard that the Virgin was of the house and lineage of David?"
"Now that the Virgin was of the race of David is indeed from these things evident; but wherefore he gave not her genealogy, but Joseph's, requires explanation. For what cause was it then? It was not the law among the Jews that the genealogy of women should be traced. In order then that he might keep the custom, and not seem to be making alterations from the beginning, and yet might make the Virgin known to us, for this cause he hath passed over her ancestors in silence, and traced the genealogy of Joseph. For if he had done this with respect to the Virgin, he would have seemed to be introducing novelties; and if he had passed over Joseph in silence, we should not have known the Virgin's forefathers. In order therefore that we might learn, touching Mary, who she was, and of what origin, and that the laws might remain undisturbed, he hath traced the genealogy of her espoused husband, and shown him to be of the house of David. For when this hath been clearly proved, that other fact is demonstrated with it, namely, that the Virgin likewise is sprung from thence, by reason that this righteous man, even as I have already said, would not have endured to take a wife from another race."(Chrysostom - Homilies on Matthew, Homily 2)

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son, and why it's not applied for all mankind?

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The incarnation makes it possible for the unknowable God to be made known to man. Only through Christ may one know God. We can be united with Christ and attain theosis. Christ defeated death and sin and only through His Church can we work out our salvation.

The proper way of understanding the cross is that of Christus Victor: http://sharktacos.com/God/cross_intro.shtml

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

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Mark 10:32-34
Matthew 20:17-19
Luke 18:31-33
Matthew 16-21-28
Matthew 17:23

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?

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God is outside of time. Read Hebrews as it speaks of those whose faith were counted as righteousness even though they never lived to see the fulfillment of that faith.

6- what must we do to a person who killed?

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Follow the laws of the land.

7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

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He was hungry, he ate and drank. Christ, being God incarnate, wouldn't have done anything other than that which would make our salvation possible.

We see fasting from food and drink for forty days in the Old Testament as well. Moses did these things on behalf of Israel. Christ is the fulfillment of this.

Deuteronomy 9:18
Deuteronomy 9:9
I Kings 19:8
Exodus 34:28
Psalm 106:23

UIN said:

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

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For much the same reason that English is a particular popular language for it to be printed in now. Greek was the closest thing to a universal language of the day - it was the natural language to write in to communicate with the largest possible audience.

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

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It's the tree through his adoptive father, Joseph.

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son,

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That's a big question - but roughly: by allowing all powers behind sin and evil to do their worst to him and coming through it he defeated their power (which could not be done in any other way).

and why it's not applied for all mankind?

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It is.

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

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"Three days and three nights" isn't something to take hyper-literally, especially when there is symbolism behind the precise timing that has the crucifixion on friday, a day of 'rest' on saturday, and the new creation beginning first thing on sunday morning.

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?

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They are included in God's plan. Exactly how isn't dealt with in detail, but there are heaps of clues that God has that in hand.

6- what must we do to a person who killed?

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7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

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God sustained him. (Indeed, what is food but the means by which God normally sustains + an element of pleasure and satisfaction?)

as well as I think you made your best to answer these questions, but:

1- wouldn't there be a first copy of his language?

2- it's not right to say a god's son is adopted by a raiser, and as you say, he's a god, so why does he need someome to rais him and feed him?

3- if jesus=god, then how come he didn't just forgive?

4- if there were three nights, one of them for rest, that means that god rests, is that true?

5- if god made jesus to stay alive, then is jesus a god?

UIN said:

as well as I think you made your best to answer these questions, but:

1- wouldn't there be a first copy of his language?

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Two part answer: Jesus didn't write the New Testament, his Apostle's did. So it was written in the common written language of the day. Greek happens to be the most precise language so it's also the ideal language to communicate in a precise way (as much a possible anyway).

UIN said:

2- it's not right to say a god's son is adopted by a raiser, and as you say, he's a god, so why does he need someome to rais him and feed him?

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Jesus is fully man as well as fully God. Because of being fully man he had to be fed, had to learn his trade and grew throughout his life. Just like a man, because he was/is fully man. He came to fulfill the law and live a perfect life and then become the perfect sacrafice for the sins of the world. If He didn't do that as man then He wouldn't have been a valid payment for our sins.

UIN said:

3- if jesus=god, then how come he didn't just forgive?

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God is also fully just and death is the penalty for sin. When Christians refer to be being forgiven we don't mean that we are let off the hook for this penalty. We mean the God himself came as a man lived a perfect life. Not deserving to suffer the penalty for sin He willingly gave Himself as a sacrafice. So we are forgiven because He paid the debt and it was fully dealt with.

UIN said:

4- if there were three nights, one of them for rest, that means that god rests, is that true?

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I have no idea what you are getting at or even trying to ask so I'll skip this. The only thing I will say is that during the creation, well after God created all things He did rest on the 7th day. Not because He had to but because He choose to set an example for us.

UIN said:

5- if god made jesus to stay alive, then is jesus a god?

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Actually your terminoligy is a bit tough to deal with, the phrase "a god" is the problem. There is one God who has revealed Himselft to us (man) as the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. Thier isn't three Gods. Jesus existed before He was born as God, and He stepped out of eternity into time and became human. All so that we can be saved.

I hope this helps.

1-The first copy is probably in a museum.

2-God humbled himself to be like us (man) because God isn't human. He did this to be the perfect sacrafice for our sins. If God came down in his full glory, all of us would be dead because of his unlimited power and holiness. Even Moses could just see the back of him because of this.

3-Jesus does forgive us of our sins after we repent and change our heart. No, he can't just forgive us without a change of heart - he doesn't want robots to worship Him. He wants our unconditional love that we get by Him from the work of the Holy Spirit in our lives.

4-Yes, God has to rest because he became man for us and flesh has to rest. He showed his supernatural self when he did his miracles and the transfiguration.

5-Jesus isn't "a god" but He is God equal to the Father.

I don't question the Bible because it has proven itself and only could be written by God. Why? There are hundreds of detailed prophesies in it that have been fulfulled and more to be fulfilled.

Internal Evidences-Prophesies that are confirmed with Bible;

mentioning only a few – but there are hundreds.

Life of Christ
The Tribe of Judah, Gen. 49:10, Luke 3:23-28
(Genesis was written 4004 BC to 1689 BC)
(Luke’s time period is 60-70 AD)

Royal Line of David, Jer 23:5, Matt 1:1
(Jeremiah 760 to 698 BC)/(Matthew 60-70 AD)

Born of a Virgin, Isaiah 7:14/Matt 1:18-23
(Isaiah 760 to 698 BC)/(60-70 AD)

till now I had no enough answer.

how can a person be man and a god in the same time?
god knows every thing, and isn't affected by anything, so why jesus said on the cross, "why my god?"?
if jesus was fully a man so he has limited powers, but being fully a god gives him enfinite powers.

UIN said:

till now I had no enough answer.

how can a person be man and a god in the same time?
god knows every thing, and isn't affected by anything, so why jesus said on the cross, "why my god?"?
if jesus was fully a man so he has limited powers, but being fully a god gives him enfinite powers.

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No human being with a finite mind can understand how the Lord Jesus can be God and man in the same person. But we can believe it because God's Word says so.

When The Lord Jesus asks My God, my God, why has Thou forsaken me, he is giving vent to the anguish in His human soul. He knew why, for Ps. 22:3 says, But Thou art holy... in other words Christ was forsaken because God could not look with favor on His Son while He was covered with the sins of His people.

Yes, both the humanity and deity of Christ are clearly shown in the Scripture. We see Him hungry, thirsty, needing sleep, unable to be in more than one place at a time in His body, yet we also see Him raising the dead, restoring sight to the blind etc, which only God can do.

UIN said:

as well as I think you made your best to answer these questions, but:

1- wouldn't there be a first copy of his language?

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The original was spoken - the first written accounts weren't compiled until some time later, and by that time greek would have been the only reasonable language to use. The nature of first manuscripts is such that none of the first ones survive - we wouldn't expect them to have as they would have been very fragile and much used. The extent of early manuscript evidence for the bible is several orders of magnitude better than any other ancient book, but having a first copy is still inconceivable, so even if parts of Matthew were originally written in aramaic its not surprising that none of it survives.

2- it's not right to say a god's son is adopted by a raiser, and as you say, he's a god, so why does he need someome to rais him and feed him?

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Jesus was fully human as well as fully divine, with all the needs and limitations that go with that. The whole point of the incarnation was that God became one of us. Not some kind of superman that looked a bit like us, but fully human with all that entails. Additionally he came as the culmination of a plan that began with calling Abraham to found a family through Isaac that would be the salvation of the world. Jesus is the culmination of that plan, so he has to be part of that family and shown to be part of that family through a genalogy.

3- if jesus=god, then how come he didn't just forgive?

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All that is wrong with the world needs to be put right. Just saying "oh - I don't worry about it" wouldn't do that.

4- if there were three nights, one of them for rest, that means that god rests, is that true?

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5- if god made jesus to stay alive, then is jesus a god?

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A day of rest is an integral part of creation - see Genesis One - and John intends what to be reflected in his timing of the the Easter story. What 'a day of rest' would actually entail for an eternal creator God isn't something we are or need to be privy to.

how can a person be man and a god in the same time?

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God can do what he likes? The question isn't answerable - by it's very nature the situation is unique and not subject to any appropriate method of explanation.

god knows every thing, and isn't affected by anything, so why jesus said on the cross, "why my god?"?

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Jesus set aside some of the 'benefits' of being God in order to be fully human.

if jesus was fully a man so he has limited powers, but being fully a god gives him enfinite powers.

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Some of that was necessarly temporarly set aside. Jesus nature was both divine and human, but for his time on earth he had to live as on earth, bound up with all the difficulties that entails, because that was the entire point of the whole exercise.

UIN-

He can be God and man at the same time because He is God and isn't limited but infinite. This isn't at all surprising when one looks at the billions of stars in the sky and how large the universe is as He created it.

***Jesus said "My God why has thou forsake me...." He said this on the cross because in jewish custom one would say part of a passage and you would know the rest. Thus, he said the beginning of Psalm 22 - which is the prophesy of his crucification. When Psalms was written the practice of crucification didn't exist yet.

UIN said:

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

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Because each Greek word has a very specific meaning compared to English. In English, "power" can mean a million different things. But in Greek, there is a word for each and every kind of power.

UIN said:

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

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Yes, there's also one in Luke 3:23-38.

The genealogies are of His physical ancestors. Their purpose is to prove that He was of the house of David, Isaac, Abraham, Jacob, etc.

UIN said:

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son, and why it's not applied for all mankind?

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Because we all sin, we can't get rid of our sin. Sin is like that stubborn stain on your sofa that won't come out without Lysol. Christ's sacrifice is the only thing that can clean sin, because He Himself is God and God's life is worth infinitely more than the life of every human. Trying to get rid of sin by any other means is like adding to the stain with red wine.

UIN said:

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

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The term "three days and three nights" that Jesus used referred to the Jewish view of 3 days. Jewish days are much different than how days are now (for instance, the Sabbath started in the afternoon). Since Jesus was a Jew, it only made sense that He'd be in there for the amount of time He was. You can look on www.wayofthemaster.com for more info on that, I'm just beginning to learn about Jewish culture and traditions.

UIN said:

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?

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God sent a sacrifice to cover all sins, past, present, and future. Anyone who put faith in God is, was, and always will be saved, because of Jesus' sacrifice. Notice that in the Old Testament God still claims people as His followers and His people. God's followers don't go to Hell, and since Jesus is God, He made everyone eligible for salvation (John 3:16). Whoever believed in God is saved.

UIN said:

6- what must we do to a person who killed?

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Murder or accidental killing? According to the American justice system, murderers are punished with jailtime or the death penalty. God forgives all (John 3:16).

UIN said:

7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

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Since God came as a man, if He allowed His body to die then He would die (as this is what happened on the cross).

UIN said:

how can a person be man and a god in the same time?

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the whole point of our faith is that Jesus was both man and god, he had to be , otherwise salvation would be an impossibility, by taking on imperfect human nature, god paved the way to salvation, without that, our human imperfections would make salvation just a myth. in short, god became man, so that man might become god.

the doubtful thing of it all is how to be a man and a god in the same time.

if he was a man, who was the one who engineers and arranges the universe and the world? who was the one who gives the people their subsistence? who was he in that time?

it bugs me lots to understand this concept.

UIN said:

1- it's known that the bible was written in greek, how come and its not jesus original language?

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Jesus spoke Aramaic. The New Testament is written in Greek, the Old Testament in Hebrew. Unlike the prophet Mohamed, Jesus didn't write his own book.

In the way that Muslims see the Qu'ran as the revelation or the very Word of God, Christians see Christ as that same thing. Jesus is revealed Word of God, and the Bible testifies to that revelation.

The reason the New Testament was written in Greek was that Greek was the international language at that time. Greek would have been understood by that largest number of people.

UIN said:

2- is there a family tree for jesus [matta 1:1], and if there is, how come while he's the son of gos?

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The Family tree is a rhetorical device used by Matthew to show Chrstian Jews that Jesus is connected to the line of David, as the Messiah was prophesied to be of that royal line. It wasn't intended to be a completely accurate family tree, since technically Jesus is not Joseph's son. But as if by proxy, Joseph made Jesus as member of that royal line.

UIN said:

3- how come forgiving the sin is by crucify the only son, and why it's not applied for all mankind?

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God didn't crucify Jesus. We crucified God. Our Sin is forgiven by God's proclamation that death no longer is the final answer to life.

UIN said:

4- does the bible say any thing about that jesus staied in the tomb for three nights?

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No the Bible indicate that Jesus was dead. He breathed his last and then was stabbed with spear to show that we would not bleed as dead bodies do not bleed without beating hearts.

UIN said:

5- what will happen to all people before jesus?

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That is up to God who we believe is just and merciful? What will happen to all the people before Mohamed?

UIN said:

6- what must we do to a person who killed?

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I am not sure what you mean by this.

UIN said:

7- in the bible [matta 4:2] says that jesus prevented himself from food for 40 days, then he finally felt hungry, so if he didn't eat he will die, isn't that true?

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Actually in Mark's Gospel, which Matthew used as a source, it says that Jesus was attended to by Angels. Matthew says that he fasted for 40 days because 40 is holy number representing the 40 years in that Israelites wandered in the wilderness. Matthew is trying to show that Jesus is like a new and greater Moses.

I hope that answers some questions.

Assalamu alaikum or Pax Vobiscum.

UIN said:

the doubtful thing of it all is how to be a man and a god in the same time.

if he was a man, who was the one who engineers and arranges the universe and the world? who was the one who gives the people their subsistence? who was he in that time?

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There was still the other two persons of the Trinity (the Father and the Holy Spirit) active in the 'usual' way, if that's what you mean. Only one person of the Trinity became human.

it bugs me lots to understand this concept.

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It is a bit counter intuitive, but shouldn't we expect God to exceed what we can imagine?