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Biblical Inerrancy vs. Biblical Infallibility

Humble_Disciple

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While biblical infallibility claims that the Bible is without error in every matter required for salvation, Biblical inerrancy claims that the Bible is without error in every detail possible, including scientific and historical details.

The distinction between Biblical infallibility and Biblical inerrancy matters because many people, when first confronted with the apparent contradictions in the Gospels, stop believing in central doctrines like the virgin birth and physical resurrection of Jesus.

Another way of describing this distinction is that the Bible is inerrant in a limited sense, on matters of doctrine and practice, rather than in an unlimited sense, on every possible historical and scientific detail. The Bible, like Jesus, is fully divine and fully human.

To insist upon unlimited inerrancy seems like docetism, ignoring the element of human authorship. We have four Gospels specifically to give us four uniquely human, though divinely inspired, perspectives.

When assessing ancient documents by normal historical standards, their reliability isn't determined by exactness in every possible detail. For example, Jesus most likely cleansed the temple near the end of His ministry, like in the synoptic Gospels, rather than in the beginning, like in John.

This would explain why the Jewish authorities were provoked to execute Him. John, on the other hand, placed it in the beginning, in order to establish Jesus' authority over the temple as the Son of God, since the primary emphasis of John's Gospel is the deity of Christ.

This is only a problem if one insists that the Bible is inerrant word-for-word, rather than in doctrine and practice:


Those who hold to unlimited inerrancy insist that the Bible is inerrant in every possible detail, while those who hold to limited inerrancy, also known as Biblical infallibility, regard the Bible as inerrant in matters of doctrine and practice.

It's simply an unprovable assumption that the Gospel authors intended for the events described to be placed in a strictly chronological, rather than thematic, order.


While every historian agrees that Hannibal crossed the alps to Rome, the ancient accounts contradict each other on which road led him there:


While every historian agrees that Hannibal crossed the alps to Rome, the ancient accounts contradict each other on which road led him there, just as the Gospels contradict each other on minor details like how many angels were at the tomb, while agreeing on Jesus' physical resurrection.

This same point is made in Lee Strobel's The Case for Christ, one of the best-selling evangelical titles in the last twenty years.
There is a historical difference between evangelicalism and fundamentalism, and the scholars interviewed in Lee Strobel's The Case for Christ, including William Lane Craig, would be considered evangelical, but not fundamentalist.

In traditional Jewish commentaries, the Book of Job might be entirely allegorical, rather than a historical account. This is only a problem if the Bible is seen as inerrant word-for-word, rather than in doctrine and practice:


That the Book of Job might be an allegorical theodicy doesn't give us license to interpret Jesus' virgin birth and physical resurrection allegorically, because these truths are essential to historic Christian faith, just as the giving of the Commandments on Sinai is central to Judaism.

Those who believe in limited inerrancy have a higher view of scripture than Martin Luther did:

Luther considered Hebrews, James, Jude, and the Revelation to be "disputed books", which he included in his translation but placed separately at the end in his New Testament published in 1522.
Luther's canon - Wikipedia

Those who insist upon unlimited inerrancy miss the point as to why the scriptures were written in the first place, "to make you wise for salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus," to instruct in righteousness, to equip for every good work, and to correct false doctrine, none of which requires that the Bible be word-for-word inerrant on every possible historical and scientific detail.

2 Timothy 3:15-17
and that from childhood you have known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.

If unlimited inerrancy were true, then the mustard seed would be the smallest of all seeds, which it obviously isn't. Jesus' point was to illustrate the power of faith, even if the size of a mustard seed, rather than teach botany. Matthew 13:31-32



 
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St_Worm2

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Here's another set of definitions (of the two terms) to consider from one of our denominations, the EFCA (Evangelical Free Church of America).

The Doctrine of the Scriptures (8): Inerrancy and Infallibility
Evangelicals affirm that the Scriptures are both inerrant and infallible. If there is misunderstanding of the term inerrancy, that misunderstanding and confusion multiples when you add the word infallible.

Many today conclude inerrancy is the stronger term, infallibility the weaker. Many believe that the term infallible is a way of avoiding inerrancy, of affirming the authority of the Scriptures though without needing to affirm they are inerrant, i.e. without error. This is related to and a carry-over of the inerrancy debates in the 1960s when the expression "limited inerrancy" was used in relation to the Scriptures.

Is this accurate?

It is actually a misunderstanding. Both terms affirm the authority of the Scriptures and that they are without error. Inerrant means there are no errors, they are without error; infallible means there can be no errors, it is impossible for them to have any errors. The Scriptures are both inerrant and infallible.

John Frame, The Doctrine of the Word of God, helpfully defines the terms (169):

To say that a text is inerrant is to say that there are no errors in it. To say that a text is infallible is to say that there can be no errors in it, that it is impossible for that text to contain errors. . . . Inerrant means, simply, ‘without error.’ Infallible denies the possibility of error. . . . Scripture is both inerrant and infallible. It is inerrant because it is infallible. There are no errors because there can be no errors in the divine speech.

One of the criticisms of inerrancy is that the reality of what the term means dies a thousand deaths through caveats, concessions and qualifications. To claim a text is inerrant and then to follow that up with all the qualifications seems to undermine the very definition. But this is to misunderstand the nature of God’s revelation in written words, the Bible.

Once again Frame provides an important answer to this objection by distinguishing between qualifications and applications of inerrancy (174).

So I think it is helpful to define inerrancy more precisely [!] by saying that inerrant language makes good on its claims. When we say that the Bible is inerrant, we mean that the Bible makes good on its claims.

Now, many writers have enumerated what are sometimes called qualifications to inerrancy: inerrancy is compatible with unrefined grammar, non-chronological narrative, round numbers, imprecise quotations, prescientific phenomenalistic description (e.g., “the sun rose”), use of figures and symbols, and imprecise descriptions (as Mark 1:5, which says that everyone from Judea and Jerusalem went to hear John the Baptist). I agree with these points, but I do not describe them as “qualifications” of inerrancy. These are merely applications of the basic meaning of inerrancy: that it asserts truth, not precision. Inerrant language is language that makes good on its own claims, not on claims that are made for it by thoughtless readers.

The Scriptures are both inerrant and infallible. Because the Scriptures are infallible, they are inerrant. In the EFCA we affirm both truths as they relate to the Scriptures.


Greg Strand
EFCA

Greg Strand is EFCA executive director of theology and credentialing, and he serves on the Board of Ministerial Standing as well as the Spiritual Heritage Committee.
--David
 
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Humble_Disciple

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Jesus most likely cleansed the temple near the end of His ministry, like in the synoptic Gospels, rather than in the beginning, like in John. This would explain why the Jewish authorities were provoked to execute Him.

John, on the other hand, placed it in the beginning, in order to establish Jesus' authority over the temple as the Son of God, since the primary emphasis of John's Gospel is the deity of Christ.

This is only a problem if one insists that the Bible is inerrant word-for-word, rather than in doctrine and practice.
 
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Reluctant Theologian

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My predication and personal advice: clinging to absolute inerrancy for all of the Bible is a recipe for faith collapse when one is confronted by Biblical criticism from experts who really know their stuff. So please don't do that - and learn to value and use the Biblical texts in that they're reliable enough to get the main picture and the message for salvation.

Texts have a history; reading about textual criticism will reveal the extent to which we sometimes do not know exactly what an author originally wrote; or even who that author was.

Personally speaking: I can believe God worked through the Gospel writers, worked through and revealed himself to Paul, but I can also acknowledge there may be inconsistencies, copying errors, or even plain errors in the Biblical text - my faith and salvation does not depend on that.

Faith that depends on the assumption (as the Bible itself does not even claim that) of absolute inerrancy will make you extremely vulnerable for any attacks from Atheists or Muslims.

Rhetorical question: when Paul writes ' ... please take my coat with you ....' (2 Timothy 4:13), do you think of that as the literal word of God (and thus inerrant)? I don't; and I don't have to, because even Paul does not claim that. And despite that - we can still read reliable enough about God's truth, his revelations to Paul, and his instructions to the church in his letters.

The 'word of God' is that what is uttered or brought forth by God himself - it is contained IN the scriptures, but there is not necessity to view ALL individual books/chapters/sentences of the Bible as literal the word of God.

And of course, the ultimate 'word of God' is Jesus himself !! The literally living word !
 
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St_Worm2

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The Bible tells that the Lord Jesus cleansed the Temple ~twice~, once at the beginning of His public ministry, and then a second time, three years later, after His triumphal entry into the City of Jerusalem. Is there a reason(s) that we should believe otherwise, IOW, that there was only a single Temple cleansing instead of the two that are recorded for us in the Gospels

Thanks!

--David
 
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Humble_Disciple

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That's already been answered. Please read before commenting:


If you insist that Jesus cleansed the temple twice in order for the Gospels to be historically reliable, then you don't understand the genre of ancient biographies, in which they were written, "But an understanding of the Gospels as ancient biographies relieves us of such a supposition, for an ancient biographer can relate incidents in a non-chronological way."
 
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St_Worm2

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Humble_Disciple

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Whoops, I must have missed it. Sorry about that. I'll take a look and get back to you.

 
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St_Worm2

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Hello again @Humble_Disciple, thanks for pointing out the pertinent comments from your post to me again

Looking back, I realize that my last question to you should have been, "Is there a reason(s) that we MUST believe otherwise, IOW, that there was only a single Temple cleansing instead of the two that are recorded for us in the Gospels?"

I believe that there were two different Temple cleansings, so that means that I disagree with Craig's assessment (as do many/most of my commentaries .. then again, there are commentators who agree with him as well ).

The other thing is, even if Craig's view is correct, how does that disprove the inerrancy of the Scriptures, especially when you consider the explanation that he gave us for believing that there was only one? Perhaps we are on a very different page concerning the meaning of Biblical inerrancy!

I haven't looked into this topic for years (of the two accounts of Jesus and the money changers, that is), so I think it best that I do so again before continuing. I'll (hopefully) be able to get back to you about it tonight (Dv).

God bless you!

--David
 
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Humble_Disciple

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It's simply an unprovable assumption that the Gospel authors intended for the events described to be placed in a strictly chronological, rather than thematic, order.

I agree with William Lane Craig that the Bible is limitedly inerrant, inerrant in matters of doctrine and practice, as opposed to unlimitedly inerrant, inerrant in every possible historical and scientific detail.
 
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Hmm

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Good explanation - I never understood the difference between infallibility and inerrancy before. Re. the above, I'm not sure that people turn away because of contradictions in the Bible on minor issues, I think most people would expect that. I think it's because if the only Christians they meet insist that there are no contradictions and that 2 + 2 ≠ 4 they will quite naturally feel that that isn't something they can stomach.
 
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Humble_Disciple

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Those who stress Biblical infallibility still believe in its inerrancy, but only on matters of doctrine and practice. It's an understanding of the scriptures as, like Jesus, both divine and human.
 
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Hmm

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Those who stress Biblical infallibility still believe in its inerrancy, but only on matters of doctrine and practice. It's an understanding of the scriptures as, like Jesus, both divine and human.

I agree with you. I was meaning minor and natural discrepancies such as in the varying eye witness accounts of the discovery of the empty tomb. - if they tied up word for word it would be extremely suspicious and that's what I meant by saying most people would expect a level of contradiction in things like that. If the Christians they know won't allow them to be rational about this then this will usually be a deal breaker, and I wouldn't blame them if it was.
 
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Humble_Disciple

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The Age of Reason by Thomas Paine sets out to disprove the Gospels simply by pointing out discrepancies between the virgin birth and resurrection accounts. It's a complete joke compared to what they know today about how ancient history was actually written, but liberal theologians like John Shelby Spong still use the same arguments.
 
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Interesting. I remember going to a talk once given by a literalistic Christian given to uni students on this theme. He had lots of pictures of rocks, bones and the galaxy and during his talk he proved using the Bible that all these rocks and bones were less than 6,000 years old or whatever it was and disproved the constancy of the speed of light to prove that the universe was too. I noticed a group of students ahead of me who weren't Christians and had come along hoping to learn something looking at each other and shaking their heads in disbelief. I remember feeling angry about this guy who was so arrogant in his ignorance of his ignorance that he may well have put this group of people off Christianity for life. I'm glad the Bible says that that false teachers will be held to account.
 
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Humble_Disciple

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While every historian agrees that Hannibal crossed the alps to Rome, the ancient accounts contradict each other on which road led him there:


This same point is made in Lee Strobel's The Case for Christ, one of the best-selling evangelical titles in the last twenty years.
 
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com7fy8

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My short answer > it is possible that each Gospel writer knew what he witnessed. And Jesus went to the temple more than once. And there were things Christ did more than once.

Now, in case anyone wishes to get into a lot of detail about Biblical accuracy >

As we can see, anyone can argue what they decide to promote.

And God knows the real reason why we say what we do.

So, if someone tells me something, I might keep listening to see what is the "therefore" of what someone says.

How therefore are you becoming as a person? Are you sharing with God who has you becoming more and more maturely like Jesus? This is the accuracy we need . . . how God alone can know how Jesus really is, and change us to be like this, so we love the way God knows He means by His word.

What therefore do you claim about right from wrong? There are people who make their claims about God's word, and then they discriminate, by saying certain wrong people are ok and therefore do not need to be forgiven; but Jesus died for all sinners, so any wrong person can be changed to be and to love like Jesus and obey how our Father rules us in His own peace (Colossians 3:15).

If our understanding of God's word is accurate, we are discovering how God in us does what He knows His word means to Him > this includes >

"we who first trusted in Christ" > in Ephesians 2:2.

"And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to which also you were called in one body; and be thankful." (Colossians 3:15)

"'Take My yoke upon you and learn from Me, for I am gentle and lowly in heart, and you will find rest for your souls.'" (Matthew 11:29)

"Let all bitterness, wrath, anger, clamor, and evil speaking be put away from you, with all malice. And be kind to one another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God in Christ forgave you." (Ephesians 4:31-32)

"even as God" we forgive, if we are living in God's love. This is very good accuracy of knowing God's word

And God is able to use any scripture to help us to find out how to love.

So, is this where our attention is, first of all??? It is wise to have our attention accurate.

Plus, do we have accurate examples, who are like Jesus and who love like Jesus and His word say to love any and all people; do our examples help us with this? People on the Net can say anything and argue it, but we don't maybe get to see how they really are and live as their result. We are now reaping according to what God knows we really have been sowing, including now in our emotions.

So, you can make sure with God. People you don't even know can make their claims about what is logical and scholarly, but our character has a lot to do with what we are ready to trust and claim.
 
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Humble_Disciple

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My short answer > it is possible that each Gospel writer knew what he witnessed. And Jesus went to the temple more than once. And there were things Christ did more than once.

While every historian agrees that Hannibal crossed the alps to Rome, the ancient accounts contradict each other on which road led him there, just as the Gospels contradict each other on minor details like how many angels were at the tomb, while agreeing on Jesus' physical resurrection.
 
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Humble_Disciple

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Those who believe in limited inerrancy have a higher view of scripture than Martin Luther did:

Luther considered Hebrews, James, Jude, and the Revelation to be "disputed books", which he included in his translation but placed separately at the end in his New Testament published in 1522.
Luther's canon - Wikipedia
 
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com7fy8

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how many angels were at the tomb,
But the one angel is outside. The two were inside. The Gospels do not contradict how many were out and how many were in. Also, how many angels were unseen?
 
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