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BigChrisfilm

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Yes, but we must also realize that God is a God of love, and he loves justice as well. He is not some squishy God, he is a wrathful, just judge of all the world. So God could be angry at sin, and still be a God of love.
 
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InHisSpirit

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I see your point Bigchrisfilm, but the point am trying to make, is the op is making it sound like there will be no forgiveness for something like the mispronouncing His name, even believers who have professed a relationship with Christ.
 
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IamGodslittlegirl

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James, there is no 3rd day of Passover /Pesach. Pesach is only one day, then comes the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Jesus arose on the 2nd day of Unleavened Bread.

However, the Bible is not clear exactly when the feasts actually occurred by way of the actual calendar. We simply do not have exact dates, as He willed it. It is not important. What is important is that we live because He lives.
 
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IamGodslittlegirl

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James, I think you may want to review historical records, because what you are hearing does not line up with it.

Greek was the language of commerce and of the Jews, along with some Aramaic. Hebrew was spoken in the synagogues [Greek word] Roman influence had predominated the land of Israel since around 300 BCE. Latin was spoken by some romans, it was the court language - and possibly used by the some of the Roman army. Jesus spoke Greek on a number of occasions in the Gospels, and so did the disciples. Jesus also spoke Greek to Pilot. It is also recorded that Jesus spoke Aramaic from the cross.

The problem, is that there are no original fragments of any Hebrew of the NT. We do have Greek fragments from around the 2nd century, if memory serves me right. The DSS are of the OT only and include quite a number of Greek writings, so we know that Greek was a common language of the first century. We also know that a Greek translation of the OT was being worked on well before the first century - and being translated by 70 top Jewish scholars, so they must have known Greek [LXX/Septuagint].

There are also Jewish artifacts and Jewish ossuries coming from the first century with Greek inscriptions. Plus, the coins of the first century had Greek on one side of the coin, so obviously the Jews could read their money

The Latin Vulgate NT was translated from the Greek, not the Hebrew.

Although the disciples were considered unlearned men, this did not mean they couldn't speak the languages of the day. Many of them were fishermen who sold their catch to Greeks. Then there is Matthew who took taxes for the Roman govt. Obviously these men knew Greek or they would not be able to communicate with the Romans.

There is a problem with your receptor, God does not make things up to soothe your theology when historically, His Word proves you wrong.

ps: do you believe that the NT is the inspired Word of God?

pps: please show proof that the disciples wrote the NT in Hebrew. thanx.

ppps: not to be tedious, but the Torah was not written in Hebrew - it was written in proto type canaanite. Then there was paleo Hebrew which looked and sounded nothing like what Hebrew did in the first century. Not only that, the OT mss includes borrowed words of latin, greek, and aramaic. Today's Modern Hebrew has evolved even further away from the masoretic mss that we have our translations based on. There are no "original" OT mss left - they disintegrated
 
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desmalia

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IamGodsLittleGirl, thank you for your peaceful, truthful, patient words in this thread. Yours is a voice of reason.

Spacecat, I believe you have hit the nail on the head, my friend.

Some interesting articles (and from more respectable sites than some guy's homepage on "Aloha.net", I might add!):


And for an interesting breakdown on the semantics of why we use the name JESUS in English, click here.

James, you came in here, guns blazing, with judgements that you cannot back up biblically. Not to mention you have claimed things in error. In short, you have not provided any validity to your claims. You are anonymous on this site (as are we all), so we can only weigh your words against more of your words, and of course the attitude you project, but not your actions. You suggest that anyone who even questions you must not really be saved, and further, that they are rejecting God's revelation as spoken by you. God has commanded us to test all these things against His word. Yet you are offended when we do. Do you expect that all of God's people should blindly follow anyone who claims to be a prophet?

There is some truth to what you are speaking. However, that's not enough for me to take you seriously because there is also error. There is also a great deal of condemnation and bitterness in your words. We are commanded to hold one another accountable, but we are also commanded not to condemn one another.

If it is God's truth that you seek in your life and that you desire to proclaim, then I strongly urge you to test the spirit that has your ear. And please ask yourself whether you are speaking these things out of love for God's children or out of anger and bitterness.
 
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CaDan

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The Latin Vulgate NT was translated from the Greek, not the Hebrew.

IIRC, Jerome translated the NT from the Greek (since that is what it was written in). He translated the OT from the Hebrew, although he did consult the Septuagint in doing so.

I could be wrong about that though.
 
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IIRC, Jerome translated the NT from the Greek (since that is what it was written in). He translated the OT from the Hebrew, although he did consult the Septuagint in doing so.

I could be wrong about that though.

I believe you are right. Though there are ancient texts referred to as the old vulgate.

I am still interested in why he does not use the name for Christ that the apostles used. And they were Jewish.

I have asked twice but to no avail.
 
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ArcticFox

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I have placed James on my IGNORE list, and I would advise others to do the same. More for his sake than anyone else, because James needs a better outlet for his zeal than what he is pursuing now.

James is not a troll, but his posts often create a similar reaction from everyone. Let's consider what is best for his spiritual health as well as our own.
 
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Good advice. Though I think it prudent not to deride the name of Christ in any form.
 
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IamGodslittlegirl

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I am still interested in why he does not use the name for Christ that the apostles used. And they were Jewish.

I have asked twice but to no avail.

Are you speaking about JamestheProp as to why he doesn't use Christos? I could probably give you a pretty good answer.
 
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CaDan

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I believe you are right. Though there are ancient texts referred to as the old vulgate.

I am still interested in why he does not use the name for Christ that the apostles used. And they were Jewish.

I have asked twice but to no avail.

This is my theory (and it is only a theory).

Almost all of our written history of the early Church comes from the Greek speaking Diaspora. In that group, personal names would be Grecianized. So in our written records, we see a Grecianized version of Y'shua.

John P. Maier devotes a couple of pages to the question of the "actual" name of Jesus in Vol. 1 of "A Marginal Jew."
 
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IamGodslittlegirl

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You might be interested in this article:

http://www.seekgod.ca/htwhatsinaname.htm
 
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thereselittleflower

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Rhamiel – It is very simple Easter and Christmas are both lies of Satan. Neither of then has anything to do with the Lord's birth, life, crucifixion, death or resurrection. They are lies plain and simple.

I am sorry, but this is not true. I am sorry you have believed a falsehood.


As far as tithing. If We as individuals are the Only TRUE Church and if it is true that our churches are Satanic temples where should we be paying our tithes? Certainly not to Satan’s Temples of ungodliness!

Again, I am sorry, but you are not speaking the truth (in general). We as individuals ae not the only true Church. The Church is a collective, the Body of Christ, which is many . . . Your "IF" conditional premise is faulty and so is leading you to erroneous conclusions.

Give and it shall be given unto you. Pressed down shaken together and running over shall men give unto your bosom.

Yes . . . . . yet this passage has been taken over by those who preach a properity gospel when the scriptures warn us against those who preach that gain is godliness. . . . .
1 Timothy 6:5
Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing gain to be godliness: from such withdraw thyself.​

Is it possible that when we pay our tithes to Satan that we are actually robbing from our brothers and sisters? And more importantly from ourselves and our own families? God’s true Storehouse.

I am sorry that you believe such error regarding the Church. You mix valid points with error and so either make what is valid appear to be in error, or what is error appear to be valid.

There is no strict tithing required of Christians. We are not held to a particular percentage. We are to give according to our means, this is true . . however, to tithe to the Church is not to give ou tithes to Satan.

You have entered upon error in your zeal.


Yes, these places exist. That does not make all churches as this.

Oh yea for some of your information. I have been incarcerated for witnessing to people on the streets and for baptizing students during Spring Break in the ocean.


I do not doubt you. I have to wonder though, in America if this is where you are, how you would be incarcerated for such unless you were breaking some law and being a disturbance by doing so.

I do not have a paper from some preacher factory saying that I am able to witness (Preach) or baptize. I have had people curse at me and toss their garbage at me from their cars as I was witnessing to people.

Again, I have to wonder, if you are in America, what you were actually doing if you were arrested for such activity, if you were violating laws you shouldn't have been violating.


Yes, Jesus has a purpose for all of us being where we are. . . . . .

The Lord Yeshua told me that the world hates Him. How much more is the world going to hate me whom he has sent into the world in His Name?


One must be careful to differentiate between actually being sent in Jesus' name and being sent by one's imagination . . . . . between doing what Jesus actually wants us to do, an what we imagine He wants us to do . . . . .

However I do not have to worry about pleasing men or appeasing men. I do what the Lord tells me to do in spite of what any man or woman many think of say.

The question is who is telling you what to do? From your words in this thread, I cannot see that you are doing what the Lord tells you to do, as your words immediately below betray:

My Heavenly Father says Easter and Christmas are satanic celebrations and that is all I really need to know.


That right there, in the context of your post and this thread, tells me it is not our Heavenly Father you are listening to . . . our Heavenly Father says no such thing, at least when it comes to the Christian celebrations of Christmas and Easter. These are Christian celebrations celebrating the birth, death and resurrection of our Lord. Our Heavenly Father does not say these are satanic. You do, but our Heavenly Father does not.

My Heavenly Father tells me to warn others about Easter and Christmas so they may not burn in the Lake of Fire or go to that place where there is weeping and gnashing of teeth and I do not hesitate to warn them.

Our Heavenly Father gives no such warning. Our Heavenly Father does not send those who honor Christ's birth, death and resurrection by celebrating Christmas and Easter to the Lake of Fire or to the outer darkness because they do so.

If they listen then I have gained a brother or a sister. However if they refuse to listen and just want to argue then they have lost everything including their very life.

Your words are not the words of our Heavenly Father. Your words are not the message of our Heavenly Father.

Your words promote error and division among Christ's Body.

Your words condemning those who celebrate Christmas and Easter to hell are promoting falsehood and error; not the words of our Heavenly Father.


.
 
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thereselittleflower

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And so we get to it . . . . the old "if it is similar, it must be the same" argument.

Similarity does not equal sameness James.

That it does is itself a lie of the devil.

We, as Chrisitans, are to be redeeming the time:
Colossians 4:5
Walk in wisdom toward them that are without, redeeming the time.​

The Church is about redemption, and in redeeming time, the Church takes back what Satan stole . . .

The date we celebrate is not important. WHAT we celebrate is.

You once belonged to Satan, no? You had to be redeemed, no?

Did your redemption, of one who once belonged to Satan, make the Body of Christ satanic?

No, of course not . . . you were REDEEMED. You were brought out of darkness into the light. You were taken out of Satan's hands and put into God's hands.

It is no different with redeeming time. . . .

To take what once belonged to Satan and redeem it by creating a Christian celebration in its place is a marvolous thing. Redeeming the time by creating a Christian celebration does not make the Christian celebration and Church any more Satanic than your own redemption makes you or the Church satanic. . . .

If these celebrations are satanic, then your own redemption and everyone else's must be called into question too.


The Church has redeemed the time these celebrations occur in. They Church took these times back from the kingdom of darkness and made them solidly part of the kingdom of light. They have been redeemed.


Any voice that speaks differently is not from heaven . . . . . .


.
 
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ArcticFox

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I wanted to agree with you in general, but to qualify a statement. I don't believe that the celebration of Christmas, Easter, or any other "Christian holiday" is of any great importance in the faith. Paul speaks about having our faith between ourselves and God, and he addresses this very issue of celebrating days (Romans 14). We should not judge anyone who chooses not to celebrate, but neither should the abstainer judge the one who celebrates.
 
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IamGodslittlegirl

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the winter and spring solstice is still celebrated by several religions not of God, so how does christianity redeem that which is still satan's? what is satan's belongs to satan. what is God's belongs to God. you cannot take what is unclean [satan's] and "redeem" it to make it God's [clean]. The Scripture is clear, the unclean makes the clean, unclean. The only exception is the souls of men, by which we are redeemed/purchased by the blood of Christ and translated from darkness into His glorious Light.

could you also provide scriptural proof that the church can or did redeem things from the kingdom of darkness and turn them into the kingdom of light?

by the way, what is it that you think satan stole that we have to get back?

thanx

ps: christmas and easter are man made celebrations. they have nothing to do with God - He is not the Author of them. they were created by man to worship God and if you chose to celebrate that is your decision, but these celebrations do not belong to God. They belong to man.
 
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Christ shined His light in the darkness. All of creation groans for salvation. Death is even transformed, or had its sting removed.

Are you saying that God cannot triumph over the evil ones "celebrations"?

Mat 12:
25And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
 
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CaDan

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Acts 10. Romans 14. I Corinthians 7. I can continue if necessary.

Your theology of clean and unclean is precisely backwards.
 
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