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I tell you this I come to you in reasoning and in logic,but you can't disprove or approve God's existences. That makes him God!
Where did Matter come from?Logically speaking
I would rather believe there is a God in the Bible than to die and then find out otherwise. It's a terrible notion to have listened to the worlds point of view to find out they where wrong and pay the ultimate price for it.
Yeah, you're correct so far, but you DID say-
Me: ... probability ...
There more to be said by Hank Hanegraaff. In my Own words we have to go to the sources of information and that is scholars of the N.T.,O.T. and Historiansallhart,
There are very, very few sources that even tell us that Jesus existed. No historical sources, outside of the New Testament, say he rose from the dead, claimed to be God, or performed any miracles. If you have evidence that would suggest otherwise, that was not written centuries later by Christian writers who were basing their books upon the New Testament, I'd be glad to read it.
In fact, there's more evidence to support the idea that Pilate was a brutal leader who was recalled to Rome for his brutality than there is to supportthe Pilate character shown in the New Testament.
There more to be said by Hank Hanegraaff. In my Own words we have to go to the sources of information and that is scholars of the N.T.,O.T. and Historians
Is the New Testament canon Authoritative or Authoritarian?
N.T. canon and knows nothing of early competing canon. Secular historian-including Josephus (before AD 100), the Roman Tacitus (around AD 120), the Roman Suetonius (AD 110), and the Roman governor Pliny the Younger (AD 110)-confirm the many events, people, places and customs chronicled in the N.T. Early church leaders such as Irenaeus,Tertullian,Julius Africanus and Clement of Rome-all writing before AD 250-also shed light on N.T. historical accuracy. From such sources, we piece together the highlights of the life of Christ independent of the N.T. canon. Moreover, Eusebius of Caesarea acknowledged the centrality of the canonical Gospel and recorded their widespread use in important Christian centers including Jerusalem,Antioch,Alexandria and Rome. As such,the canon was not determined by men but discovered by the of early believers based on principles on principles of canonicity.
Pick up the Bible answer book by Hank.He has more to reveal about time lines of 70AD, Mid 60s and AD 40. Just a few years after the events recorded Paul, Mark, Matthew, Luke and John
Historical scholars have made evidence of the witnesses recorded and available for you. Pray to God for him to help you to come to an understanding of Jesus Christ. If you are truly serious and sincere, God will open your heart, mind and Soul..... Seek and you shall find!As I said, this may all be well and good to establish that Jesus existed, it doesn't confirm miracles, resurrection, etc.
N.T. canon and knows nothing of early competing canon. Secular historian-including Josephus (before AD 100), the Roman Tacitus (around AD 120), the Roman Suetonius (AD 110), and the Roman governor Pliny the Younger (AD 110)-confirm the many events, people, places and customs chronicled in the N.T.
Early church leaders such as Irenaeus,Tertullian,Julius Africanus and Clement of Rome-all writing before AD 250-also shed light on N.T. historical accuracy. From such sources, we piece together the highlights of the life of Christ independent of the N.T. canon.
Moreover, Eusebius of Caesarea acknowledged the centrality of the canonical Gospel and recorded their widespread use in important Christian centers including Jerusalem,Antioch,Alexandria and Rome.
As such,the canon was not determined by men but discovered by the of early believers based on principles on principles of canonicity.
Hmm, I disagree. It is, by definition, without attributes and properties. An electric hole doesn't have properties per se, but acts as if it does. Which might be where you're getting confused: it's useful to think of nothingness as some quantifiable object with properties (and our language is geared towards thinking like that), but that's ultimately not what's happening.But that's the rub: by assigning some manner of non-existence to nothingness, you've injected a form of existential inertia/stasis into it's attributes that seems to preclude dynamic creation.
Because non-existence is the important concept here. Also, how can there be a state between existence and non-existence?Why not default to a state where neither existence nor non-existence are meaningful?
True, but 'chaos' has a very different meaning in science. Given the nature of our discussion, I don't think we need any more confusionHow can there "Chaos" implies instability and endless flux; it's not a "something", but rather where stuff and non-stuff arises.
Hmm, I disagree. It is, by definition, without attributes and properties. An electric hole doesn't have properties per se, but acts as if it does. Which might be where you're getting confused: it's useful to think of nothingness as some quantifiable object with properties (and our language is geared towards thinking like that), but that's ultimately not what's happening.
Because non-existence is the important concept here. Also, how can there be a state between existence and non-existence?
True, but 'chaos' has a very different meaning in science. Given the nature of our discussion, I don't think we need any more confusion.
It doesn't spring from it, but it springs because of it. It possess no attributes and properties, so nothingness itself doesn't do anything, and no thing comes from it. Nevertheless, somethingness subsequently arises because nothingness existed before.If it possesses no attributes and properties, then what reason is there to suppose that existence may spring from it?
Yes, I was going to mention the Mahāyāna school of Buddhism: they take Gautama's 'Middle Way' to the extreme, positing a Middle Way in everything, to the extent that they seem to reject the Law of Excluded Middle.Hindu and Buddhist thinkers supposed that such a quasi-state had to exist for existence and nonexistence to exist in the counterpoint manner that they do.
Agreed. But I was thinking more about the standard that has naturally developed on CF: if in doubt, assume everyone's using scientific vernacular.But here, we've gone past scientific matters into metaphysical speculation. I mean, talk about Braines if you want, but go further and you're in shrug-dunno-perhaps-land.
Please explain what time is supposed to be in the absence of laws, physics, logic, in the absence of "literally anything".ON TO THE SUBJECT:
I just had this sort of thought bouncing around in my head, and I think I had an epiphany. That or my brain exploded. Okay, consider this:
Before the universe existed, there were no laws. Of anything. No physics, no logic, no nothing.
If such a blank nothingness existed without laws, literally anything could happen.
In the infinite amount of time that the nothingness existed, it is infinitely probable for anything and everything to be created. Since there is an infinite amount of time and no binding guidelines, literally every possibility must be fulfilled.
This includes the spontaneous creation of our universe.
i think you just ended yourself.Then please, explain how nothingness can be restricted, if there's nothing to do the restricting.
right... in other words, something can't "begin" in or through nothing alone.Please explain what time is supposed to be in the absence of laws, physics, logic, in the absence of "literally anything".
It doesn't spring from it, but it springs because of it. It possess no attributes and properties, so nothingness itself doesn't do anything, and no thing comes from it. Nevertheless, somethingness subsequently arises because nothingness existed before.
It's like... I didn't have a car crash because I had an accelerator, but because I didn't have brakes. The 'brakelessness' didn't cause the crash, and the crash didn't arise from it. But nevertheless, I only crashed because I was in a state of brakelessness.
That's the point of an absence: it's not that it does do something, but that it doesn't stop it.
Yes, I was going to mention the Mahāyāna school of Buddhism: they take Gautama's 'Middle Way' to the extreme, positing a Middle Way in everything, to the extent that they seem to reject the Law of Excluded Middle.
Suffice to say, rejecting fundamental laws of logic makes me uncomfortable!
Agreed. But I was thinking more about the standard that has naturally developed on CF: if in doubt, assume everyone's using scientific vernacular.
That way, we don't have people jumping into a thread and turning it into a tired debate on semantics.
but I see no impetus for somethingness to occur, unless you're suggesting the absence of obstruction necessarily leads to existence...
Please explain what time is supposed to be in the absence of laws, physics, logic, in the absence of "literally anything".
i think you just ended yourself.
but let me try to explain this another way.... why are you so intent on keeping this dogma?
there is "nothing" to do the restricting if nothing is nothing.
also, you're wrong about the restriction thing too.
everything (including everything that is real, possible, imaginable, in-imaginable and impossible) has no restrictions.
nothing is a term that signifies the ultimate restriction. in other words, nothing carries with it every restriction... if nothing were to cary no restrictions, it would be everything, or at least something.
right... in other words, something can't "begin" in or through nothing alone.
if something "begins" in or through nothing, it means that nothing was never nothing....
which brings us back to the original problem. you place restrictions on nothing by saying it has no physics, laws, or anything. and then you tell us it has no restrictions.
nothing is nothing.
nothing is not, not nothing.
That's pretty much what I'm suggesting. Though, unlike PhilosophicalBluster, I'm not suggesting that the laws of logic themselves are absenthttp://www.christianforums.com/users/235764/ (that would be... sillyI just see no logical progression here... nothingness certainly makes room for any and all somethingness, but I see no impetus for somethingness to occur, unless you're suggesting the absence of obstruction necessarily leads to existence... I think you need to go into more detail here.
Anything. But because we have nothingness (or rather, don't have any thing), the only possible outcomes are i) we continue to have no thing, or ii) we hereafter do have some thing. There exists some finite probability that the latter outcome will occur, and in the absence of time, all events occur simultaneously. Thus, somethingness results.Doesn't stop what?
I'm usually open-minded about other ways of looking at the world... but this one is just dead wrongWe're in the Western tradition(s)... T or F is as much as we can handle.
Yes, but it's more ambiguous and confusing. If we agree to use scientific vernacular, then when I use the word 'chaos', you know precisely what I'm talking about. If we're using colloquialisms, then my words are just as vague and ill-defined as they were before.But isn't that what gets spoken more often than scientific vernacular?
Then why does my clock continue to tick, even when I'm not in the room?imo, time essentially is a human construct; we've created 'time' so we can have work schedules and mundane on-time oppointments. time didn't exist until people made the idea.
Time really doesnt exist at all, regardless of space, laws, physics, logic, etc. Logically, it only exists bc people think it does.
huhI think you just confused everyone. lol
that is much better.My theory says there was never a beginning and there will never be an end.
Theres everything, and only, everything.
...so, if a nature is present, meaning that if whatever you're talking about is itself, then restrictions are present...
...the op described the nature of nothing, meaning he gave it restrictions...
... if nothing lacks all restrictions, then nothing also lacks itself (2)...
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