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You would need to demonstrate how many things there are to know, and how it would be possible.
I'm sorry, I seem to be confused by what you mean by the word "objective."There would be no point in saying it's possible if I could demonstrate it.
If I could demonstrate it then it would be factual.
What your asking of me is no different than saying the multiverse is not possible since science can't demonstrate that it's factual.
Possibilities do not need to be demonstrated in order to be possible. If they are demonstrated then they become facts.
It's rather contradictory non-sequitur. You'd need to show that all things that are not known are the sort of things that can be known. To do that, you'd have to know something about them, so they wouldn't be things that are not known.
Define in your own words what it means to be objective.
To me, it means to do what's right all the time because being objective allows one to see clearly what is true.
It is possible for a being to know all things and therefore that being would have the highest capacity of objectivity.
The relevant dictionary definition for this topic is "not dependent on the mind for existence, actual", alternatively complete impartiality could also be seen to be objective.
Doing what's right all the time in the way you have described (i.e. morally) is necessarily subjective, because the very act of judging it as "right" is a subjective judgment.
That's good, thanks.
Without a mind, no one can know existence or be objective.
Still we must ask why do our minds exist? Is there a purpose for how and why we can understand existence? I believe there is.
Of course. I only told you about 58 times.That's good, thanks.
Without a mind, no one can know existence or be objective.
Still we must ask why do our minds exist? Is there a purpose for how and why we can understand existence? I believe there is.
If some things can be known then it's possible that all things can be known.
How is the above not an objective statement?
Apex fallacy. Just because some or even most members of a set have a property does not mean that all members of the set have that property.
It is. It's just not a substantiated objective statement. It can't be considered true until you show that it's true.
You seem to not understand what the word "possible" means. I'm not saying since some things can be known then all things are known, I'm saying since some things can be known then it's possible for all things to be known.
I can say this true statement without demonstrating that all things are known because in the statement I'm not saying that all things are known, I'm saying it's possible for all things to be known.
The statement "It's possible for all things to be known" is a true statement and I don't have to demonstrate all things being known in order for it to be considered true.
It's similar to saying "It's possible that an infinite multiverse exists". I don't have to demonstrate the infinite multiverse in order for this statement to be true.
Seriously, this is my last post on this thread for awhile, until I find a way to explain what Im saying in a more understandable way.
No; no it doesn't. Some things may be unknowable. To show that it's possible to know all things, you have to know that all things are knowable, and you can't do that without knowing all things, which is the possibility that you're trying to establish... So it's not possible to know whether it's possible to know all things unless you know all things. See?Right, which shows it's possible to know all things.
I heard what you said, but saying it doesn't make it right.I am not saying that I can demonstrate this, I am saying that it's possible.
There may be unknowable things. You have a problem either with language or with logic (or both). Perhaps you mean, "It's possible that all things are knowable" ?I can say this true statement without demonstrating that all things are known because in the statement I'm not saying that all things are known, I'm saying it's possible for all things to be known.
It's an unprovable statement. It's true if and only if all things are knowable, which is unknowable.The statement "It's possible for all things to be known" is a true statement and I don't have to demonstrate all things being known in order for it to be considered true.
Because that's an ontological statement (about what can exist), not an epistemological statement (about what can be known).It's similar to saying "It's possible that an infinite multiverse exists". I don't have to demonstrate the infinite multiverse in order for this statement to be true.
What you said is understandable but wrong. You might consider saying something different - such as what I suggested above: "It's possible that all things are knowable"Seriously, this is my last post on this thread for awhile, until I find a way to explain what Im saying in a more understandable way.
There may be unknowable things. You have a problem either with language or with logic (or both). Perhaps you mean, "It's possible that all things are knowable" ?
It's an unprovable statement.
Because that's an ontological statement (about what can exist), not an epistemological statement (about what can be known).
What you said is understandable but wrong. You might consider saying something different - such as what I suggested above: "It's possible that all things are knowable"
If all things are knowable then it's possible for all things to be known.
Knowing something is different from knowing that you can know it.How is the statement "It's possible for all things to be known" different from the statement "It's possible that all things are knowable"?
That's what I said, 'if and only if'. Donald Rumsfeld put it memorably - there are known unknowns - things we know that we don't know; and there are unknown unknowns - things we don't know that we don't know. We might conceivably discover that it's possible to know all the known unknowns, but while there are unknown unknowns, we can't be sure that all things are knowable, so we can't say it's possible for all things to be known; some things may simply be unknowable.If all things are knowable then it's possible for all things to be known.
No, I'm trying to correct a misunderstanding.Are you just trying to find fault where there is none?
Knowing something is different from knowing that you can know it.
That's what I said, 'if and only if'. Donald Rumsfeld put it memorably - there are known unknowns - things we know that we don't know; and there are unknown unknowns - things we don't know that we don't know. We might conceivably discover that it's possible to know all the known unknowns, but while there are unknown unknowns, we can't be sure that all things are knowable, so we can't say it's possible for all things to be known; some things may simply be unknowable.
No, I'm trying to correct a misunderstanding.
Knowing something is different from knowing that you can know it.
That's what I said, 'if and only if'. Donald Rumsfeld put it memorably - there are known unknowns - things we know that we don't know; and there are unknown unknowns - things we don't know that we don't know. We might conceivably discover that it's possible to know all the known unknowns, but while there are unknown unknowns, we can't be sure that all things are knowable, so we can't say it's possible for all things to be known; some things may simply be unknowable.
No, I'm trying to correct a misunderstanding.
To keep it simple, explain how an unknowable thing has any relevance to all other things that are knowable.
Then explain how you know anything about that which is unknowable.
I hope you're seeing the problem here.
To keep it simple, explain how an unknowable thing has any relevance to all other things that are knowable.
Then explain how you know anything about that which is unknowable.
I hope you're seeing the problem here.
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