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The reason I asked the question originally is that I trying my best to see some rationality in the Christian faith. How can christians say that Verse A. confirms that hell is eternal punishment (EP), but then say because Verse B. doesn't say the same thing, that they will go along with Verse B. Verse B. in this case doesn't deny EP in hell, but it doesn't say for sure that there is EP. Now in this particular case Matthew 25:46 is clear about eternal punishment although punishment itself is not defined. From what I've read, in this case punishment=torment. How can christians discount this information when saying that hell doesn't exist or is not eternal torment?Amongst all the passages that speak of 'the negative afterlife' those that explicitly state eternal punishment are in the minority; you have two and one that implies it
I've read many times here and other places that some christians don't believe in a literal hell. As the bible clearly mentions hell several times, I'm curious as to how a devout christian could deny the existence of hell.
If by "hell" you mean the classic imagery of fire, brimstone, an elevator, heat, and a red heifer with a pitchfork; than no.
in this case doesn't deny EP in hell, but it doesn't say for sure that there is EP. Now in this particular case Matthew 25:46 is clear about eternal punishment although punishment itself is not defined.
My theory is that the bible says it here, doesn't deny it elsewhere in the bible, thus there is a hell for some of us, and it is eternal, and it is torment. You can't just point to another verse that leaves out (doesn't refute) one of the 3 conditions and use it to disprove Matthew 25:46.
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