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I'm studying middle age mediterranean history, hoping to major in it come fall, and I read that St.Peter founded not only the See of Rome but that of Antioch as well.
It's more of a historical question, but what are the Church's current views on the patriarchate of Antioch? If the Catholic Church bases its authority on apostolic succession, and St.Peter founded the Church of Antioch, shouldn't Antioch be in complete communion with Rome?
Thanks
I am familiar with the general history of the situation. It just seemed inexplicable to me that the Roman Church would do nothing to mend the rift with Antioch, seeing as the authority it claimed over eastern Orthodoxy was through the succession of Peter, who -as we see, founded both Churches.
I am beginning to see the splitting of the Church as a tragic miss-understanding more than anything, and as strongly as people may feel about it.
It just seemed inexplicable to me that the Roman Church would do nothing to mend the rift with Antioch
He was speaking specifically of the See of Rome in its relations with the See of Antioch, therefore his use of the expression "Roman Church" was appropriate.
Thanks
I am familiar with the general history of the situation. It just seemed inexplicable to me that the Roman Church would do nothing to mend the rift with Antioch, seeing as the authority it claimed over eastern Orthodoxy was through the succession of Peter, who -as we see, founded both Churches.
I am beginning to see the splitting of the Church as a tragic miss-understanding more than anything, and as strongly as people may feel about it.
Keenan, it's important that you understand there is no "Roman Church." There is only the Catholic Church and Rome is where the head of the Catholic Church is seated. Rome itself is not the head of the Church, Peter's successor is
Antioch was a Church that St.Peter started, but he did not end up there, when he left Antioch and appointed another Bishop for the region he did not pass on his role as first among the Apostles, he took that with him, he did not leave Rome, so the title stayed there
He was also speaking about the Eucharist--why unleavened bread is used. Perhaps an answer might be that the Passover (with the fact that the Jews were to eat as if they were traveling and would not have time to leaven the bread, watch it rise, and then bake it) is considered to be a foreshadowing of the Eucharist in which the host (bread) is unleavened.
What you would be looking for is the Council of Florence in the 1400s. It was an attempt to re-unify the Church. It, of course, did not end very well.
I'd like to invite you to pose your question over in St. Justin Martyr's Corner of TAW, so I can answer it in greater detail. I do not want to cause any waves over here in OBOB.
He was speaking specifically of the See of Rome in its relations with the See of Antioch, therefore his use of the expression "Roman Church" was appropriate.
Great, I love historical sources. Thank you. It's interesting the council convened so close to the fall of Constantinople.. It makes you wonder, if they healed the rift, would the emperor have had support from the west. Would Byzantium have survived..? Very interesting stuff I'll have to read on.
Well, appropriately it's not the Roman Church or the "see of Rome."
Appropriately, it's the Holy See.
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