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This verse is not speaking about the punishment of men. It deals specifically with the punishment of the devil and the beast and the false prophet. In Revelation 16:12-14, we see that these three are UNCLEAN EVIL SPIRITS of DEVILS, which tells us that they are NOT of the same class of beings as mankind, but rather that they are of the same class of being as the devil.I looked into the annihilation thing and resolved every passage but this one:
And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever. (Rev. 20:10)
You still have not answered how non-personal things such death and the grave can suffer conscious torment. Death and the grave CANNOT suffer conscious torment. They are altogether abolished.Aionios is used twice in Matthew 25:46. Once to describe 'everlasting punishment' (αἰώνιος aiōnios κόλασις kolasis); and again to describe life eternal (ζωή zōē
αἰώνιος aiōnios). If you are operating from a different lexicon let me know.
Stongs G166 aionios:Genesis Chapter 1 (KJV)
Even the Latin Vulgate gets it right:
et ibunt hii in supplicium aeternum iusti autem in vitam aeternam
Strongs G166 aionios:
The KJV translates Strong's G166 in the following manner: eternal (42x), everlasting (25x), the world began (with G5550) (2x), since the world began (with G5550) (1x), for ever (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage
A few points. First is if we go by your definition, our eternal life with God is 'an indeterminate period of time.' That sure changes a lot of Christian teachings and even apostolic teaching in the NT. Where we see 'eternal' life in 1 John 5:20 I'm guessing it is not an 'indeterminate period of time.' It really means eternal. I mean the Apostle John used the same word aionios.
- without beginning and end, that which always has been and always will be
- without beginning
- without end, never to cease, everlasting
Secondly, trying to wrest a root of a word is not how we exegete as the NT writers did not use the root but the actual word. I see this approach as begging the question, as we have ample evidence of aionios used throughout the NT which there is absolutely no debate the meaning is 'eternal' or 'everlasting.'
Finally, we can check the OT too. I quoted Daniel 12:2. The English used there for everlasting life and everlasting contempt is again the same word owlam. Again, the lexicon lines up with 'everlasting.'
The KJV translates Strong's H5769 in the following manner: ever (272x), everlasting (63x), old (22x), perpetual (22x), evermore (15x), never (13x), time (6x), ancient (5x), world (4x), always (3x), alway (2x), long (2x), more (2x), never (with H408) (2x), miscellaneous (6x).
long duration, antiquity, futurity, for ever, ever, everlasting, evermore, perpetual, old, ancient, world
Owlam H5769: Genesis Chapter 1 (KJV)
- ancient time, long time (of past)
- (of future)
- for ever, always
- continuous existence, perpetual
- everlasting, indefinite or unending future, eternity
In support of your avatar:
“Who stands fast? Only the man whose final standard is not his reason, his principles, his conscience, his freedom, or his virtue, but who is ready to sacrifice all this when he is called to obedient and responsible action in faith and in exclusive allegiance to God – the responsible man, who tries to make his whole life an answer to the question and call of God.” – Dietrich Bonhoeffer
Yes I believe the EO see eternity as beyond time. Which in our language is everlasting and eternal.speaking of the after-death existence and resurrection in terms of "periods of time" may not be fair to the Christian tradition, either. It's become obvious to me, chatting and interacting with Orthodox Christians, that western Christians view of time is not really consistent with the biblical one, which is more vague and nonlinear.
Yes you are arguing from a root word and not as the actual word is used in the Greek.You still have not answered how non-personal things such death and the grave can suffer conscious torment. Death and the grave CANNOT suffer conscious torment. They are altogether abolished.
The print form of Strong's Concordance I possess says that aionios is from aion (G165) which means "age." An age comes to an end.
What is the sign of your coming and the end of the age (aion G165).
An aion comes to an end. It expresses limited duration. Thus it only expresses the idea of endlessness when connected with what is endless, as God. Furthermore, it is used in the plural which proves that it expresses limited duration. For instance, Hebrews 1 says that God through the Son made the [successive] ages (aion, G165). If aion means "endless," then when used in the plural we would have to believe that there is more than one eternity which is absurd.
Are you suggesting it's a different end for them?This verse is not speaking about the punishment of men. It deals specifically with the punishment of the devil and the beast and the false prophet. In Revelation 16:12-14, we see that these three are UNCLEAN EVIL SPIRITS of DEVILS, which tells us that they are NOT of the same class of beings as mankind, but rather that they are of the same class of being as the devil.
Yes.Are you suggesting it's a different end for them?
I don't think that fits the larger context. If the annialation of body and soul in the lake of fire is the end for the children of perdition it should apply to all. I can't imagine perpetuating them in these fires serves any purpose. Their not sent there to suffer, they suffer because they are sent thereYes.
Agree but think there is more in Scripture plus reasoning supporting the idea such people exist and will continue to exist in the next life - in torment.I looked into the annihilation thing and resolved every passage but this one:
And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever. (Rev. 20:10)
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