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In Acts 4 v 32-36 it says:
32All the believers were one in heart and mind. No one claimed that any of his possessions was his own, but they shared everything they had. 33With great power the apostles continued to testify to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and much grace was upon them all. 34There were no needy persons among them. For from time to time those who owned lands or houses sold them, brought the money from the sales 35and put it at the apostles' feet, and it was distributed to anyone as he had need.
36Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which means Son of Encouragement),
1) Is the notion of a Christian commune something that was a purely contextual response by the Early church or does it have any meaning for today?
2) How should we interpret this passage in the light of other passages in Proverbs etc which imply that wealth is a sign of blessing and a reward for hard work for instance?
3) Is the lesson of this passage prescriptive on the lines of the story of the rich young man and Jesus or is it , like that passage, prescriptive for some but not for others?
4) Was this sharing in the early Jerusalem church ultimately to prove a problem as by Acts 11 the church needed the support of other churches around the empire?
32All the believers were one in heart and mind. No one claimed that any of his possessions was his own, but they shared everything they had. 33With great power the apostles continued to testify to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and much grace was upon them all. 34There were no needy persons among them. For from time to time those who owned lands or houses sold them, brought the money from the sales 35and put it at the apostles' feet, and it was distributed to anyone as he had need.
36Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which means Son of Encouragement),
1) Is the notion of a Christian commune something that was a purely contextual response by the Early church or does it have any meaning for today?
2) How should we interpret this passage in the light of other passages in Proverbs etc which imply that wealth is a sign of blessing and a reward for hard work for instance?
3) Is the lesson of this passage prescriptive on the lines of the story of the rich young man and Jesus or is it , like that passage, prescriptive for some but not for others?
4) Was this sharing in the early Jerusalem church ultimately to prove a problem as by Acts 11 the church needed the support of other churches around the empire?