A question about a certain few verses in Leviticus...

[God Is My Judge]

In Leviticus 25: 35 - 54 are the laws for the slave owners of Israel....
Now, traditionally, slavery was a BAD thing, right? I know, from context that apparantly they were treated all as members of the family, and loved as much as any son, and that after 7 years they were allowed to be free, or to permanently be a member of the family as a slave. However.... Despite all the knowledge I've acquired from people that I've talked to, which makes it seem that slavery, isn't actually slaverly as the stereotype we know it. The master was effectively required to be a slave to his slaves; it was his duty to love them, and care for them, see to their needs, and the rest of that. Even as we, in a way, are slaves to god, if we truly believe; we act on his will as best we can. Jesus was a slave to the whole of mankind, and that was by his choice. Perhaps the word 'slave' is wrong, and servant would be a better terminology for it, but I digress... Even though people have told me all this, and it fits with a lot of other parts and principals, there's one passage from this section in Leviticus which confuses me, and seemingly contradicts everything else said; verse 44 to 46. "Yuor men and women slaves must come from other nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. Also you may buy slaves' children from the families of foreigners livng in your land. These child slaves will belong to you, and you may then pass them onto your children after you die; you may make them slaves for ever. But you must not rule cruelly over your own people the Israelites."
..... That defeats the whole 7 year thing, seemingly, and makes it seem that god dosen't particularly mention anything about the wellbeing and treatment of the slaves. They may be kept as slaves for ever. I just don't understand how that fits in at all... unless it's now become unrelated due to the New Testament. Could someone give me any other scriptural evidence to put this into some form of contextual situation to clarify it? As it stands I'm currently really rather confused over the whole issue, as I refuse to believe that my God would condone slavery in this seemingly barbaric fashion. Help, please?

 

[reigning_fire]

their slaves were not our slaves. after 7 years, all debt and slave terms were ended. slavery was just a term for repayment. if you were in debt to someone, then they would work in your home for however long to repay you, but if they worked for 7 years, they were free.
hope that answered it for ya
god bless

 

[Allen2]

This is a troubling and challenging issue for me. It is true that the Lord gave instructions for humane treatment of slaves and their eventual manumission in the OT.
Also in the NT era slavery in the Roman empire was a far cry from the barbaric conditions endured by slaves elsewhere. Great humanitarian changes had been introduced to improve the lot of the slave.
Still, God has often tolerated what He did not intend to endure. All of us are created in God's own image so that the buying and selling of other humans is obviously a violation of their lofty status. Furthermore, in our own country as America became more industrialized, many workers were virtual slaves with a pittance for wages, few if any benefits, many living in company houses and severely treated if they spoke against this slavery or even dared to strike.
All people must be treated as a reflection of Divinity(however dim) and any corporation or work situation that demeans their workers must be exposed and resisted by Christians in any lawful means possible. God bless, Al

 

[Islander]

When His opponents questioned Jesus about the Mosiac law and marriage Jesus told them that God allowed divorce in the Mosiac law because the hearts of the people were hard so God allowed some things He didn't want to allow (see Matthew 5 & 19, Mark 10 and Luke 16; particularly Matthew 19:8).

 

[Singleman]

It is frustrating when God doesn't do things according to our timetable. The fact is that He did end slavery, many centuries later, and Christians were at the forefront of the abolition movement (both in England and America).

 

[Wills]

In Leviticus 25: 35 - 54 are the laws for the slave owners of Israel....
Now, traditionally, slavery was a BAD thing, right? I know, from context that apparantly they were treated all as members of the family, and loved as much as any son, and that after 7 years they were allowed to be free, or to permanently be a member of the family as a slave. However.... Despite all the knowledge I've acquired from people that I've talked to, which makes it seem that slavery, isn't actually slaverly as the stereotype we know it. The master was effectively required to be a slave to his slaves; it was his duty to love them, and care for them, see to their needs, and the rest of that. Even as we, in a way, are slaves to god, if we truly believe; we act on his will as best we can. Jesus was a slave to the whole of mankind, and that was by his choice. Perhaps the word 'slave' is wrong, and servant would be a better terminology for it, but I digress... Even though people have told me all this, and it fits with a lot of other parts and principals, there's one passage from this section in Leviticus which confuses me, and seemingly contradicts everything else said; verse 44 to 46. "Yuor men and women slaves must come from other nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. Also you may buy slaves' children from the families of foreigners livng in your land. These child slaves will belong to you, and you may then pass them onto your children after you die; you may make them slaves for ever. But you must not rule cruelly over your own people the Israelites."
..... That defeats the whole 7 year thing, seemingly, and makes it seem that god dosen't particularly mention anything about the wellbeing and treatment of the slaves. They may be kept as slaves for ever. I just don't understand how that fits in at all... unless it's now become unrelated due to the New Testament. Could someone give me any other scriptural evidence to put this into some form of contextual situation to clarify it? As it stands I'm currently really rather confused over the whole issue, as I refuse to believe that my God would condone slavery in this seemingly barbaric fashion. Help, please?

God killed Israelites using fire etc. Aarons son's were killed in a severe manner by God.. hence in the Old Testament, we come across certain
events that are harsh. Remember, God allowed Egyptians to enslave the Hebrews for 400 years, and later Assyrians, Babylonians etc, hence there is a pattern of harshness across board.

The Israelites in the process of building up their kingdom defeated many tribes and God gave them to the Israelites in conquest, thus the laws of slavery, servitude etc. However, Jesus's ministry is to all nations, hence Christians enslaving fellow partakers of Christ would place the slave owners in a bit of a quandary.... Israel versus Canaanites ceased after Christ for Christianity places all on the same level, whereas in the old testament, God actually empowered Israel to wipe out Hittites, Philistines, etc.... hence our world today is not a cut and dried Israel versus the bad guys scenario.

 

[A Brethren IN CHRIST]

1 cor 7:20-24 talks about how we are slaves to the flesh or for Christ a slave yet free from the flesh

 

[leecappella]

their slaves were not our slaves. after 7 years, all debt and slave terms were ended. slavery was just a term for repayment. if you were in debt to someone, then they would work in your home for however long to repay you, but if they worked for 7 years, they were free.
hope that answered it for ya
god bless

me: Interesting. Please give me backup for this statement. A book source, bible verse, or something. I really would like to read about this. Thanks.