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A Disciplined Probabilistic Approach to Biblical Hermeneutics

tonychanyt

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How do you do this by setting up accurate priors?
You are asking a series of good questions

When the objective relative frequency data is available, you set the prior to that. Your point is when it is not available, what do you do?

Good question

For a calculation example, see Probability of being a witch, given a letter has been received from Hogwarts.

For a summary example, see What is the probability that the Shroud of Turin shows the image of Jesus?. In this case, my personal belief system should be coherent even if it is subjective. That would satisfy the mathematical requirement of the priors.
 
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Stephen3141

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This is an honorable undertaking.
It opens a door to areas of consideration, that many christians have never gone through, and are not familiar with.

---------- ------------

I like to mention some "complications" when trying to apply rigorous intellectual methods to biblical topics...
(in no particular order)

1. Few Christians start with a discussion of what they consider "reality" to be
2. Many Christians have very different ideas of the "components" that make up our shared reality
3. Many Christians have never studied formal logic, or applied logics, and so will use their own pickup definitions of language dealing with logic and probability theory
4. Many Christians have never studied the biblical languages,
and do not know what the world class reference tools are,
or how to use them.
5 (I'm curious to see how you will use probability theory).
Probability theory deals with an assumed (or experienced) problem space.
6. Because people have VERY different ideas what "our shared reality" is,
they are working with very different problem spaces.
This will affect how they attack numbers to "possibilities."

And of course,
7. The Bible projects a picture of our shared reality, that most secular Americans will not accept.
This will affect how someone tries to put together a Christian probabilistic argument.
8. A person's philosophical view on how we can/cannot perceive our shared reality,
affects what they accept as "evidence", and types of evidence.

---------- ------------

I think that it is part of Christian Apologetics, to recognize that many people are using VERY DIFFERENT concepts of what reality is, or how we perceive reality. And recognizing that, to explain that there are different views of reality. And that these different views, result in some very different conclusions.

Probabilities, over these very different believed problem spaces, will be very different.

---------- ------------

I would leave an interesting quote from Stephen Meyer, "Return of the God Hypothesis".

"... deductive entailment involves a far stronger standard of epistemic support
than empirical science can obtain." (p. 242)

Meyers is saying that the scientific method, although it uses some deductive tools,
is itself an inductive journey that involves more and more discovered knowledge.

A corollary to this, as Meyers points out, is that natural theology will also
NOT be able to prove entailment, either.
 
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tonychanyt

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Thanks for sharing

Right. I would not insist on my approach to anyone. Even for myself, I do not use this approach exclusively.

I am not really interested in Apologetics as a formal discipline. I am more into Hermeneutics.

Click this for an example of subjective probability and follow up there.
 
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shadowhunter

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Good luck. More than 40 years ago I tried mapping scripture into formal propositional statements which could be analyzed.

After some hard failures, I turned to trying to read a Hebrew book as a Hebrew child. Hebrew logic is quite different from Western logic.

In Hebrew thinking, if five men have coffee and one has sugar, they all had sugar. The reason for this is that they all represent the Messiah, and there is only one of him.

Example: There are the women at the well; the same well. This is already a foreign thought because the Greek mind has separated them into three different contexts.

The first was Rebekah who was chosen by the Father.
The second was Rachel who was wooed and worked for by the son.
The third was at Sychar. The whole town was gathered to Jesus. Sychar means 'intoxicated' as a hint of the Holy Spirit.

From this we see the Father chooses, the son woos and works for, and the Holy Spirit gathers the bride.

Notarikon is an attribute of Hebrew where words get their meaning from the combined meaning of the letters within.
Jesus was named Yeshua to fulfill the prophecy he would be called Emmanuel. Greek logic cannot make sense of this. they are two different names. But Notarikon says that yeshua is "God with a marriage in his heart".

God also speaks in dark saying. This is not ominous. It is simply riddles. A pun to Yeshuah is ya-shuach or God humbled, speaking of his incarnation. Both word plays speak of God with us.

Hebrew was not intended to be translated, but tasted: Bereshit is translated as 'in teh beginning', but we can taste 'created ברא six שית' , a covenant בר()ית with man אש at the center. and much more.. in fact John 1:1-4 comes from tasting the first three words of Ge 1:1.

The rosh ר is a revelation. The tov ת is a revelation with a new life springing up. Amar אמר is the 'word'. A word with a new life springing up is is amat אמת or the Truth. Jesus is the Finished word that brings new life.

I wish you well.
 
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tonychanyt

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More than 40 years ago I tried mapping scripture into formal propositional statements which could be analyzed.
Thanks for sharing your experience. BTW, that is not what I am trying to do.
 
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shadowhunter

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Oh yeah, there is the problem that words have more than one meaning, simultaneously.

Why did the chicken cross the road? To get to the other side.
The real answer is "to get to the other side" where "the other side" is a euphemism for dying and going to heaven. So when you see the dead chicken in the road, you ask the riddle. This CAN be handled in OR statements of proposition, but becomes tedious since every verse has a second meaning concerning Christ. You know it has to be this way. He said it all speaks of him.

Consider an alternate translations of Ge 2:21 ¶ And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;

Or does it mean, And God caused the man to die and he died and he married a certain limping side and delivered mankind.
It all sounds like Christ except the limping side, until we consider the bruised heel of the seed of the woman and the withered thigh of Jacob as prophetic riddle of Gethsemane. He did not wish to die in the flesh..."remove this cup..." but made his flesh limp to be obedient... "nevertheless..."
 
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tonychanyt

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Sorry. Now you just want to bicker. I assumed that your goal was the title of the thread. Shame on me for assuming you said what you meant. End of comments on this thread.
So what is my goal and what was yours 40 years ago? I am slow. Please spell them out for me.
 
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