frumanchu said:
Both views are valid. The question becomes which is correct in light of Scripture. I happen to think it's the latter, but I can see a case made for the former.
I do not think it is accurate to regard both as valid. They are mutually exclusive. Either one is wrong or they are both wrong. I will try to show you inductively that it is the unlimited atonement view that is wrong.
The unlimited atonement view holds that Jesus provided atonement for the sins of the whole world, but that only the elect will be elected, thereby effecting atonement for the elect only. The limited atonement view holds that Jesus provided sufficient sacrifice for the sins of the whole world, but that only the elect will be elected, thereby effecting atonement for the elect only. These two views are clearly at odds. One says that Jesus atoned for the whole world, but that the atonement is effective for only the elect. The other view says that Jesus atoned only for only the elect, and that this atonement is effective only for the elect. Which is accurate, then?
What is required to effect atonement? Quite simply, grace. The Father must first graciously draw us. The Son accepts us. The Father accepts the Son's sarifice as atonement for sin. If the Father does not draw us, we will not be atoned.
To atone is to make amends or reparations, to reconcile. Apart from election, we are not reconciled to God in anyway, which creates problems for the unlimited atonement view. If only the elect are truly atoned, what atonement is there for the reprobate? Now, I realize that the Amyraldian view agrees that only the elect are atoned as well, but that is precisely my point.
To argue that God created a plan for the atonement of the entire world, but only effected it for the elect is to say that God only partially completed his plan. If God's intent was for the whole world to be atoned, then his sovereignty would have effected it. If God wills something, it happens. God's plan for atonement was an act of his
active will. It was not something done passively. God
actively calls his elect, but he
passively desires that everyone be saved. He is compelled to by his loving nature, but he is not compelled to show grace to everyone. Atonement is an effect of his call to the elect. This simple fact contradicts any view that holds atonement is initiated separate from grace.
I am going to use the same argument that I have been using in my "logic of salvation" and "logic of choice" threads.
If I choose to do something, but do not do it, have I really made a choice? If I choose to jump into the air, but do not, did I really choose to jump into the air? No, of course not. I chose
not to jump into the air. This is evident because I did not. Similarly, because my nature is unrighteous, I am incapable of choosing God. I am incapable of doing anything righteous, so naturally this includes salvific faith.
God is totally omnipotent, though. Anything that he wills
will be done. He is completely and totally free. If he willed that the whole world be atoned, then it would be. If he ordained that atonement would be applicable to all, then all would be saved. If his plan was to provide atonement for all, then all would receive atonement. If this were not true, God would not be omnipotent.
The fact that God elects only a limited number of souls
necessitates the limited nature of atonement. The sins of the reprobate cannot be expiated apart from faith in Christ. To say that God's plan for atonement is frustrated by the will of man is just as wrong as saying that God's plan for salvation is frustrated by the will of man. There is no difference. Unlimited atonement conflicts with unconditional election.
Soli Deo Gloria
Jon