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2 Samuel 7:10

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Mr_E

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The verse states, "Moreover I will appoint a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, that they may dwell in a place of their own, and move no more; neither shall the children of wickedness afflict them any more, as beforetime."

I am having a hard time understanding how God kept this promise. He must have, or there would be a huge hole in the Bible. God's people, however, were conquered and exiled by the Babylonians. The were also oppressed by the Romans in Jesus days. And didn't Israel fall again sometime after Jesus death?

I can see where the "place" could potentially refer to Heaven or the new Israel after Christ's return. But when I read that verse in it's full context I get the impression that the promise would be in effect as soon as David was gone and Solomon was anointed king.

Does anybody have any insights they could share?
 

IfollowJesus

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2Sa 7:4-17
Blessings are promised to the family and posterity of David. These promises relate to Solomon, David's immediate successor, and the royal line of Judah. But they also relate to Christ, who is often called David and the Son of David. To him God gave all power in heaven and earth, with authority to execute judgment. He was to build the gospel temple, a house for God's name; the spiritual temple of true believers, to be a habitation of God through the Spirit. The establishing of his house, his throne, and his kingdom for ever, can be applied to no other than to Christ and his kingdom: David's house and kingdom long since came to an end. The committing iniquity cannot be applied to the Messiah himself, but to his spiritual seed; true believers have infirmities, for which they must expect to be corrected, though they are not cast off.
 
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calluna

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The verse states, "Moreover I will appoint a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, that they may dwell in a place of their own, and move no more; neither shall the children of wickedness afflict them any more, as beforetime."

I am having a hard time understanding how God kept this promise. He must have, or there would be a huge hole in the Bible. God's people, however, were conquered and exiled by the Babylonians. The were also oppressed by the Romans in Jesus days. And didn't Israel fall again sometime after Jesus death?

I can see where the "place" could potentially refer to Heaven or the new Israel after Christ's return. But when I read that verse in it's full context I get the impression that the promise would be in effect as soon as David was gone and Solomon was anointed king.

Does anybody have any insights they could share?
There was no promise that God would plant the Israelites for ever. In fact, the reigns of David and Solomon were the most stable in all Israel's history, and both of them are figures of Christ, so this stability should be taken as a figure of the stability that Christ gives. One could take Solomon's reign alone as being complete fulfilment, because it is a figure of heaven.

We must not forget that Israel was not supposed to have monarchy anyway, and God promised that it would lead to trouble, and it did, just as soon as Solomon died, and the kingdom was split permanently. So Israel was given the chance of a permanent home, but they 'messed up'. God's promises to man are always contingent on man's co-operation, where it is required.
 
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Bobinator

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I haven't studied the circumstances surrounding this scripture, but there is a principle to be understood.

A covenant is a solemn agreement between 2 parties. In the field of law, when one party breaks the terms of an agreement, then the other party is no longer bound to uphold the terms of the covenant. Same is true for marriage. If one spouse cheats and commits adultery, the marriage vows are broken, and the other spouse is justified in obtaining a divorce.

We find in the Old Testament that time and again, Israel failed to uphold their side of the agreement by sinning and breaking God's commandments. Therefore, the Lord was not bound to his own covenant.
 
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