- May 31, 2004
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I am an adamant opponent of "King James Onlyism", the belief that the King James Version is the only accurate and inspired translation of the word of God. If you are an advocate or believer in King James Onlyism, please read on!
First of all, I have 10 questions for you if you are an advocate or believer in King James Onlyism. Please answer these questions as honestly and correctly as you can.
1. Is/was the Latin Vulgate the word of God? Why or why not?
2. Is/was the Septuagint (LXX) the word of God? why or why not?
3. Is/was the Geneva Bible, the Great Bible, Matthew's, Tyndale's, etc. the word of God? Why or why not?
4. Which edition (year) of the KJV is uncorrupted? Why do they differ, even occasionally in words? (And if your response has to do with printing problems, why would God inspire a perfect translation only to have it corrupted by the printers? The common people would still be lacking an uncorrupt word of God.)
5. Who publishes the uncorrupted KJV? Cambride, Oxford, Kirkbride, Scofield, AMG, Zondervan, one of the Bible Societies, or one of the many other publishers? Why do they differ slightly, even occasionally in words?
6. In the context of Matt 5:18, define "jot", "tittle", and "law".
7. Define "circular argument" and give an example.
8. When you encounter an archaic term or phrase in the KJV, or come across a "contradiction", why do you rely on fallible tools (dictionaries, etc) to interpret the infallible?
9. Suppose you lived in the 10th century. How would you define "preservation" as it related to God's word, so as to not contradict the KJV-only position?
10. The KJV came out in 1611. Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior? Explain.
Questions taken from here:
http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/kjvoques.html
I highly recommend that you review these sites:
http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/index.html
http://www.kjvonly.org/
http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=665
http://www.equip.org/free/DK115.htm
First of all, I have 10 questions for you if you are an advocate or believer in King James Onlyism. Please answer these questions as honestly and correctly as you can.
1. Is/was the Latin Vulgate the word of God? Why or why not?
2. Is/was the Septuagint (LXX) the word of God? why or why not?
3. Is/was the Geneva Bible, the Great Bible, Matthew's, Tyndale's, etc. the word of God? Why or why not?
4. Which edition (year) of the KJV is uncorrupted? Why do they differ, even occasionally in words? (And if your response has to do with printing problems, why would God inspire a perfect translation only to have it corrupted by the printers? The common people would still be lacking an uncorrupt word of God.)
5. Who publishes the uncorrupted KJV? Cambride, Oxford, Kirkbride, Scofield, AMG, Zondervan, one of the Bible Societies, or one of the many other publishers? Why do they differ slightly, even occasionally in words?
6. In the context of Matt 5:18, define "jot", "tittle", and "law".
7. Define "circular argument" and give an example.
8. When you encounter an archaic term or phrase in the KJV, or come across a "contradiction", why do you rely on fallible tools (dictionaries, etc) to interpret the infallible?
9. Suppose you lived in the 10th century. How would you define "preservation" as it related to God's word, so as to not contradict the KJV-only position?
10. The KJV came out in 1611. Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior? Explain.
Questions taken from here:
http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/kjvoques.html
I highly recommend that you review these sites:
http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/index.html
http://www.kjvonly.org/
http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=665
http://www.equip.org/free/DK115.htm