Of all verses that seems to draw heated objections: (NIV)
"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God"
What causes the most controversy is the wording "homosexual offenders"
There are some Christians or so-called "christians" who argue that the original language does not say "homosexual offenders". Some as go so far to say that "the scriptures seem to condemn homosexuality as translated into English, in another place it seems to be embracing the "relationship" between two men.
I agree that scripture is correct, but how does one make the case that the wording "homosexual offenders" = is correct and thus homosexuality should be included in "the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God".
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ So........Being I don't understand the original languages
"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God"
What causes the most controversy is the wording "homosexual offenders"
There are some Christians or so-called "christians" who argue that the original language does not say "homosexual offenders". Some as go so far to say that "the scriptures seem to condemn homosexuality as translated into English, in another place it seems to be embracing the "relationship" between two men.
I agree that scripture is correct, but how does one make the case that the wording "homosexual offenders" = is correct and thus homosexuality should be included in "the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God".
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ So........Being I don't understand the original languages
- what was the wording in Greek 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 that the NIV translated for "homosexual offenders"
- Are there any other instances of this word being used elsewhere in scripture
- Are there any OT references to 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 (directly or indirect that God finds this an abomination"
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