1 Corinthians 4:6

[SQLservant]

I have to ask about this, as I've seen it in several translations.

NIV - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, "Do not go beyond what is written." Then you will not take pride in one man over against another.

Holman's - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the saying: "Nothing beyond what is written." The purpose is that none of you will be inflated with pride in favor of one person over another.

Weymouth - In writing this much, brethren, with special reference to Apollos and myself, I have done so for your sakes, in order to teach you by our example what those words mean, which say, "Nothing beyond what is written!" --so that you may cease to take sides in boastful rivalry, for one teacher against another.

I have found no Greek text whatsoever that presents "not beyond what is written" as a proverb or "saying." What source is being used for this? The cynic in me wants to say it's just an attempt at trying to shove Sola Scriptura in where it doesn't belong, but I don't want to think that, and would love to know the rationale behind this odd translation.

 

[Radagast]

I have to ask about this, as I've seen it in several translations.

NIV - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, "Do not go beyond what is written." Then you will not take pride in one man over against another.

Holman's - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the saying: "Nothing beyond what is written." The purpose is that none of you will be inflated with pride in favor of one person over another.

Weymouth - In writing this much, brethren, with special reference to Apollos and myself, I have done so for your sakes, in order to teach you by our example what those words mean, which say, "Nothing beyond what is written!" --so that you may cease to take sides in boastful rivalry, for one teacher against another.

I have found no Greek text whatsoever that presents "not beyond what is written" as a proverb or "saying." What source is being used for this? The cynic in me wants to say it's just an attempt at trying to shove Sola Scriptura in where it doesn't belong, but I don't want to think that, and would love to know the rationale behind this odd translation.

The ESV has: "I have applied all these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, brothers, that you may learn by us not to go beyond what is written, that none of you may be puffed up in favour of one against another."

The phrase "that you may learn by us not to go beyond what is written" is literally: ἵνα ἐν ἡμῖν (that by us) μάθητε (you may learn) τὸ μὴ ὑπὲρ (the not above/beyond) ἃ γέγραπται (what is written).

The definite article ("the") and the lack of a verb in "the not above/beyond what is written" lead many people to think it's a saying or slogan familiar to the Corinthians ("not beyond what is written") -- hence the NIV and HCSB translations.

No need for cynicism here.

 

[branchofthevine]

well the greek is something like "ινα εν ημιν μαθητε το μη υπερ ο γεγραπται φρονειν" and roughly means "in order that in us you may learn not to think beyond what is written.

Which could mean like not looking for different meanings other than what was plainly written. The word for to think (the last word in the greek above) apparently means the same as theatre not for plays, but for speaking in. Interesting fact.

 

[Radagast]

well the greek is something like "ινα εν ημιν μαθητε το μη υπερ ο γεγραπται φρονειν" and roughly means "in order that in us you may learn not to think beyond what is written.

Which could mean like not looking for different meanings other than what was plainly written. The word for to think (the last word in the greek above) apparently means the same as theatre not for plays, but for speaking in. Interesting fact.

The standard Greek text is Ταῦτα δέ, ἀδελφοί, μετεσχημάτισα εἰς ἐμαυτὸν καὶ Ἀπολλῶν δι’ ὑμᾶς, ἵνα ἐν ἡμῖν μάθητε τὸ μὴ ὑπὲρ ἃ γέγραπται, ἵνα μὴ εἷς ὑπὲρ τοῦ ἑνὸς φυσιοῦσθε κατὰ τοῦ ἑτέρου. I think you're quoting the TR, where the verb φρονέω was inserted, leading to a KJV translation I don't think is accurate.

I don't believe that verb belongs, and it certainly has nothing to do with theatre.

 

[branchofthevine]

The standard Greek text is Ταῦτα δέ, ἀδελφοί, μετεσχημάτισα εἰς ἐμαυτὸν καὶ Ἀπολλῶν δι’ ὑμᾶς, ἵνα ἐν ἡμῖν μάθητε τὸ μὴ ὑπὲρ ἃ γέγραπται, ἵνα μὴ εἷς ὑπὲρ τοῦ ἑνὸς φυσιοῦσθε κατὰ τοῦ ἑτέρου. I think you're quoting the TR, where the verb φρονέω was inserted, leading to a KJV translation I don't think is accurate.

I don't believe that verb belongs, and it certainly has nothing to do with theatre.

I'm quoting my Inter-linear actually, so yeah. I could check my total greek NT, but honestly it has been a year since my greek class, and I haven't kept up on it like crazy, so I am not the best source

 

[Radagast]

honestly it has been a year since my greek class, and I haven't kept up on it like crazy

That's kind of sad.

Somebody should give you this book for Christmas:

 

[branchofthevine]

That's kind of sad.

Somebody should give you this book for Christmas:

hahahahahahahahaha

 

[FreeinChrist]

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[pshun2404]

It is exactly what was taught to and taught by the early church fathers all the way past Augustine (Scripture is the final authority in all matters of faith and doctrine...do not teach what cannot be proven thereby)...believe me they did not misunderstand this passage.

Paul

 

[Knee V]

I have to ask about this, as I've seen it in several translations.

NIV - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, "Do not go beyond what is written." Then you will not take pride in one man over against another.

Holman's - Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the saying: "Nothing beyond what is written." The purpose is that none of you will be inflated with pride in favor of one person over another.

Weymouth - In writing this much, brethren, with special reference to Apollos and myself, I have done so for your sakes, in order to teach you by our example what those words mean, which say, "Nothing beyond what is written!" --so that you may cease to take sides in boastful rivalry, for one teacher against another.

I have found no Greek text whatsoever that presents "not beyond what is written" as a proverb or "saying." What source is being used for this? The cynic in me wants to say it's just an attempt at trying to shove Sola Scriptura in where it doesn't belong, but I don't want to think that, and would love to know the rationale behind this odd translation.

The only explanation that I can think of is that those translators failed to take into account the larger context of that passage when translating that verse, and thus threw in their bias.

Paul is not making an out-of-the-blue statement about the sufficiency of Scripture, and that passage has nothing to do with Scripture. Rather, that passage is about boasting: on what basis one should boast; how one should consider oneself; etc. Paul tells the Corinthians not to boast in themselves as if what they have is what they have gotten on their own. He adds that there is no basis for boasting in ourselves after the manner of the wisdom of this world, and then he proceeds to cite two Scripture passages from the Old Testament to demonstrate that the wisdom of this world is foolishness to God. Thus, in the context of boasting, Paul tells the Corinthians to keep within the bounds of the two passages that he cited. That is what he is saying in verse 6.

 

[Radagast]

The only explanation that I can think of is that those translators failed to take into account the larger context of that passage when translating that verse, and thus threw in their bias.

Paul is not making an out-of-the-blue statement about the sufficiency of Scripture, and that passage has nothing to do with Scripture.

The use of γέγραπται makes it clear Paul is talking about Scripture (Paul elsewhere uses the word in that way). This reading is consistent with the previous chapters of the epistle. Most scholars share this opinion. Even Catholic commentaries, like the one by Montague, agree that this is by far the majority opinion, and note that ἃ γέγραπται may refer either to the OT or (as St. Chrysostom suggested) to the words of Jesus.

I've already explained the rationale for the translation mentioned by the OP.