1 Corinthians 15:29 ????

[Antman_05]

29 Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead?
The New King James Version. 1996, c1982 . Thomas Nelson: Nashville

What does that mean from a reforumed view Point ??

 

[Elderone]

It isn't surprising that there haven't been any responses to this passage as it is difficult. After studying the passage, the cross references, and a half-dozen commentaries, the best I can do is offer what the Jamieson, Fausset, Brown commentary says about it. It seems to be the most clear and least verbose.

Here is the passage from the English Standard Version:

1Co 15:29 Otherwise, what do people mean by being baptized on behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?]

JFB commentary:

1Co 15:29 - Else--if there be no resurrection.

what shall they do?--How wretched is their lot!

they . . . which are baptized for the dead--third person; a class distinct from that in which the apostle places himself, "we" (1Co_15:30); first person. ALFORD thinks there is an allusion to a practice at Corinth of baptizing a living person in behalf of a friend who died unbaptized; thus Paul, without giving the least sanction to the practice, uses an ad hominem argument from it against its practicers, some of whom, though using it, denied the resurrection: "What account can they give of their practice; why are they at the trouble of it, if the dead rise not?" [So Jesus used an ad hominem argument, Mat_12:27]. But if so, it is strange there is no direct censure of it. Some Marcionites adopted the practice at a later period, probably from taking this passage, as ALFORD does; but, generally, it was unknown in the Church. BENGEL translates, "over (immediately upon) the dead," that is, who will be gathered to the dead immediately after baptism. Compare Job_17:1, "the graves are ready for me." The price they get for their trouble is, that they should be gathered to the dead for ever (1Co_15:13, 1Co_15:16). Many in the ancient Church put off baptism till near death. This seems the better view; though there may have been some rites of symbolical baptism at Corinth, now unknown, perhaps grounded on Jesus' words (Mat_20:22-23), which Paul here alludes to. The best punctuation is, "If the dead rise not at all, why are they then baptized for them" (so the oldest manuscripts read the last words, instead of "for the dead")?

I hope this helps.