1 Cor 14: 22 - 25

[Perceivence]

Hey

I've been reading these verses and commentaries for them...but I still don't get it. Here it is from verse 20 in the NKJV

20Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however, in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature.
21In the law it is written:
"With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,"[a]
says the Lord.

22Tongues, then, are a sign, not for believers but for unbelievers; prophecy, however, is for believers, not for unbelievers. 23So if the whole church comes together and everyone speaks in tongues, and some who do not understand[g] or some unbelievers come in, will they not say that you are out of your mind? 24But if an unbeliever or someone who does not understand[h]comes in while everybody is prophesying, he will be convinced by all that he is a sinner and will be judged by all, 25and the secrets of his heart will be laid bare. So he will fall down and worship God, exclaiming, “God is really among you!”

It seems to me that following the statement that tongues are a sign to unbelievers and prophecy to believers in verse 22, Paul proceeds to explain in verses 23 - 25 why tongues are not for unbelievers and why prophecy is for them. This is apparently the complete opposite of what he said in verse 22!

An alternative explanation would be that tongues are a sign to unbelievers but it is not useful for witnessing to them. But then, what sense does that make? How can it be a sign if it isn't useful? What kind of sign to unbelievers can it be if they think the believers mad? Following in this alternative explanation is that prophecy is not a sign for unbelievers but is useful for believers. But then Paul in verses 24 - 25 talks of the practical use of prophecy for believers!

So what's up with this? What am I missing...and where? I'm quite certain that Paul wouldn't contradict himself within the space of a verse.

Thank you.

(Cross-posted on the Spirit-Filled Board for wider range of views.)

 

[SBG]

Well let me see if I can explain this clearly. Often times when a kingdom takes over a land, the rulers of that kingdom make the these new slaves worship in their tongue instead of the tongue (language) they normally speak. This does not benefit these people who are now slaves, but shows that God has forsaken them by giving them over to be ruled.

If someone walked into a church who speaks only english and the sermon was being taught in latin, it would not be edifying for that person. But it would be edifying those who do speak latin. This is a sign to the unbeliever that they too have been forsaken by God. This basically means they have gone against God. They will not understand this though.

If someone went into church and heard in their own language the Gospels being preached (which is prophecy) then the non-believer may be converted to Christianity.

WHen Paul says that prophecy is for the believers, he is saying it is what makes us believe. It will be what converts people to Christianity - Jesus Christ.

When Paul says tongues are for the non-believer and not the believer, he is saying that this is the sign to show that one has not been following God.

Paul concludes this by saying that prophecy - preaching the Gospel - is what will convert the non-believer, not the sign that tells them they are forsaken by God because of their unbelief.

It is the Gospels that proclaim the power of Jesus Christ.

 

[Perceivence]

Well let me see if I can explain this clearly. Often times when a kingdom takes over a land, the rulers of that kingdom make the these new slaves worship in their tongue instead of the tongue (language) they normally speak. This does not benefit these people who are now slaves, but shows that God has forsaken them by giving them over to be ruled.

If someone walked into a church who speaks only english and the sermon was being taught in latin, it would not be edifying for that person. But it would be edifying those who do speak latin. This is a sign to the unbeliever that they too have been forsaken by God. This basically means they have gone against God. They will not understand this though.

Paul makes it rather clear throughought 1 Cor 14 that the tongues he's talking about is unintelligible unless interpreted...didn't he?

So then how does that fit?

WHen Paul says that prophecy is for the believers, he is saying it is what makes us believe. It will be what converts people to Christianity - Jesus Christ.

What about when he says it's not for unbelievers?

When Paul says tongues are for the non-believer and not the believer, he is saying that this is the sign to show that one has not been following God.

Why does he ask rhetorically after that statement if tongues around an unbeliever would make them think the speakers mad?

Paul concludes this by saying that prophecy - preaching the Gospel - is what will convert the non-believer, not the sign that tells them they are forsaken by God because of their unbelief.

But that doesn't seem to follow, especially since it direclty contradicts verse 22.

 

[tqpix]

I'm bumping this, because this is a good thread. More input is needed, please.