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This is exactly right.Can you compare and contrast for me 1.) the Magisterium of the Church and 2.) the Magisterium of Francis?
This is the second time that you have wrote about my supposed argument from authority. I have not made an argument from authority in this thread and I have no intention of making an argument from authority. I merely asked you a few questions. The reason for my questions is that I am attempting to understand your (and other FS dissenters) ecclesiology.This is exactly right.
@IcyChain, your argument depends on separating the pope from the magisterium. Your own citation of the Catechism illustrates the problem with such an approach.
By the above statement I suspect that your view of the hierarchical structure of the church is essentially identical to that of the Eastern Orthodox, except that the roman bishop has a unique power of teaching ex cathedra. Is that your view?The only way that a pope can act in a way that is unilaterally divorced from the college of bishops is in an ex cathedra definition, and Fiducia Supplicans is not an ex cathedra definition.
Sure you have. You asked me in what exceptional circumstances one can reject a teaching. This presumes a binding rule to which exceptions can be made. That binding rule that you presume is an argument from authority. It is not possible to ask me about exceptions without presuming a rule. If your rule is not based on an argument from authority, then what do you suppose it is based upon?This is the second time that you have wrote about my supposed argument from authority. I have not made an argument from authority in this thread and I have no intention of making an argument from authority.
Sure you have. You asked me in what exceptional circumstances one can reject a teaching. This presumes a binding rule to which exceptions can be made. That binding rule that you presume is an argument from authority. It is not possible to ask me about exceptions without presuming a rule. If your rule is not based on an argument from authority, then what do you suppose it is based upon?
An argument from authority (argumentum ab auctoritate), also called an appeal to authority, or argumentum ad verecundiam, is a form of argument in which the opinion of an influential figure is used as evidence to support an argument.
I'm Catholic, and I know quite well Latin
Sometime I read official bullas, documents issued by popes in the past centuries.
Believe to me, you can find everything (not only about Jews, slaves, book, etc)
Those documents are not Magisterium.
Magisterium is the overall, continuous, accepted, undisputed, teaching of the Church over the centuries, not any sentence in any text of any bishop with a title in Roman curia.
But everyone and their blind pet hamster knows that what you have to offer is an argument from authority. An argument from magisterial teaching is an argument from authority. An argument from papal authority is an argument from authority, etc.The mere presumption of a binding rule does not equate to an argument from authority. There are lots of binding rules in the universe. There is "Thou shalt not kill". If I ask you whether it is acceptable to kill in the case in which someone has threatened to stab you with a knife, that is not an argument from authority. Adults are required to file an annual tax return. If I ask you whether you are required to file one in the case in which you have no income, that is not an argument from authority. These are merely questions.
Again, I have no intention of making the argument that you should accept Fiducia Supplicans because papal authority requires it. Nor do I particularly care whether or not you accept it. The issue that I care about concerning that document is whether it contains error. We debated that in another thread, and I found your arguments unpersuasive.But everyone and their blind pet hamster knows that what you have to offer is an argument from authority. An argument from magisterial teaching is an argument from authority. An argument from papal authority is an argument from authority, etc.
Again I ask, if your "binding rule" does not flow from an argument from authority, then where does it derive its force? You are asking loaded questions while refusing to examine the presuppositions of those questions.
Well you are presuming that I should accept it. For example:Again, I have no intention of making the argument that you should accept Fiducia Supplicans because papal authority requires it.
In order to know when to reject a teaching, we first must understand when and why teachings are accepted. In order to understand the exception, we must first understand the rule. Your claim that such a question implies no presupposition that papal teachings ought to be accepted is entirely wrongheaded, and it is also evasive.In particular, I wanted to know what your exact standard is for choosing to reject a papal teaching.
I, IcyChain, on the 10th day of January 2024, do hereby formally recognize that "papal teachings ought to be accepted".Well you are presuming that I should accept it. For example:
In order to know when to reject a teaching, we first must understand when and why teachings are accepted. In order to understand the exception, we must first understand the rule. Your claim that such a question implies no presupposition that papal teachings ought to be accepted is entirely wrongheaded, and it is also evasive.
If you are not willing to recognize your presupposition, then I do not think your question was asked in good faith. If a popesplainer is to address these topics in an honest way, then they must examine the nature of their argument from magisterial (or papal) authority.
I have already given the argument in a basic form. We accept teachings on the basis of the authority of the Magisterium, and when that Magisterium is divided then the acceptance is impeded. A non-infallible papal teaching does not possess its authority independently of the college of bishops (as an ex cathedra teaching could).I, IcyChain, on the 10th day of January 2024, do hereby formally recognize that "papal teachings ought to be accepted".
Now, if you would like to answer my question, please feel free.
Alternativley, if you do not share that presupposition, then I will put the question a different way.
What are your specific requirements for choosing to accept a papal teaching?
Thank you.I have already given the argument in a basic form. We accept teachings on the basis of the authority of the Magisterium, and when that Magisterium is divided then the acceptance is impeded. A non-infallible papal teaching does not possess its authority independently of the college of bishops (as an ex cathedra teaching could).
No matter what the decision, there will always be some level of dissent or disagreement among the college of bishops, however slight.See for example, Donum Veritatis which speaks of the "Magisteriu of the Pastors":
Not without reason did the Second Vatican Council emphasize the indissoluble bond between the "sensus fidei" and the guidance of God's People by the magisterium of the Pastors. These two realities cannot be separated. (#35)
So the case of Fr. Charles Curran, which began this dialogue, is the case of private theologians vs. the magisterium of the Pastors. What we have before us is a case where the magisterium of the Pastors does not support Fiducia Supplicans. What Francis (Fernandez) has proposed has simply not been accepted by the Pastors, and therefore the magisterial weight needed for acceptance simply has not materialized. Creeping infallibility aside, there is no basis for the claim that Fiducia Supplicans is an exercise of the ordinary magisterium, and there is strong evidence to the contrary.
People come to conclusions through their prudential judgment. This is the way it has always been and the way it will always be. The Church affirms this method in her affirmation of conscience. Everyone agrees that non-infallible teachings are not infallible, and that the less a teaching represents the college of bishops, the less credence it need be given. These arguments and rhetorical lines you take do not seem to be principled. You are just throwing things at the wall and hoping something sticks. I spent a long time trying to untwist the lines in our conversation about what a couple is, but at this point it seems futile.Here, I see a problem with your view. Person A will say that there must be unanimous approval. Person B will say that there must be a supermajority. Person C will say that there only needs to be a bare 51% majority. And A, B and C will naturally change their standards, depending on how much they like or dislike the particular teaching at issue. Homosexuals will say that the pope's teaching that homosexual acts are a sin need not be adhered to because of the large number of European bishops who are moving in that direction. The SSPX will say that the Mass has not been received because many prefer the TLM. And posters on Christian Forums will say that the African Bishops have objected to Fiducia Supplicans. How does your view of the church avoid a descent into substantive Protestantism?
You have made the argument that not to accept Fiducia Supplicans is to be a bad Catholic.Again, I have no intention of making the argument that you should accept Fiducia Supplicans because papal authority requires it. Nor do I particularly care whether or not you accept it. The issue that I care about concerning that document is whether it contains error. We debated that in another thread, and I found your arguments unpersuasive.
Your view appears to be consistent with certain aspects of Febronianism, refuted at Vatican I.People come to conclusions through their prudential judgment. This is the way it has always been and the way it will always be. The Church affirms this method in her affirmation of conscience. Everyone agrees that non-infallible teachings are not infallible, and that the less a teaching represents the college of bishops, the less credence it need be given. These arguments and rhetorical lines you take do not seem to be principled. You are just throwing things at the wall and hoping something sticks. I spent a long time trying to untwist the lines in our conversation about what a couple is, but at this point it seems futile.
It's very easy to nitpick without giving your own position, as you have consistently done in this thread. In truth I think you are biased. I think you are attempting to support a preconceived conclusion, and that preconceived conclusion is just, "Pope Francis must be right." I could try to untwist all of the biased lines you continually take. I could fall into the black-and-white thinking that characterizes your criticisms.* I could offer the rejoinder that your position seems to amount to the idea that all teachings are infallible, or erect a counter-strawman of "substantive totalitarianism." But I don't have time or, to be honest, interest in such an undertaking. If someone were able to admit that the pope and the Roman magisterium share authority with the college of bishops--as Catholicism has held for 2,000 years and which Vatican II especially emphasized--then that person would take a moderate stance and they would not engage in the strange tactics you engage in, which are apparently a form of gish gallop. That is the sort of person I would be more interested in talking with, although even then my time would run short.
If you are interested in understanding my position then you could watch the video here, where Ybarra does an admirable job of elucidating the problems with FS and the two interlocutors delve into this question of obedience. Chapp gets a bit strong and rhetorical towards the end, but given your approach this would seem to be nothing more than a salutary counterbalance.
* The inability to hold the two poles of pope and college in tension, and to instead have the papal authority occlude the authority of the college, is an unCatholic approach. This ability to mediate tensions is integral to Catholicism, as Erich Przywara convincingly argues in his Analogia Entis.
We teach, moreover, and declare that, by the disposition of God, the Roman Church possesses supreme ordinary authority over all Churches, and that the jurisdiction of the Roman Pontiff, which is true episcopal jurisdiction is immediate in its character (Enchir., n. 1827).
...Completely irrelevant to the topic at hand, which is teachings of faith and morals that are non-infallible. This is a doctrinal matter, not a jurisdictional/governmental matter. The disagreement is over whether irregular couples are a proper object of blessing, and this pertains to faith & morals.You also wrote that I did not give my position. My position is set forth below.
No, the topic at hand is your incorrect ecclesiology....Completely irrelevant to the topic at hand, which is teachings of faith and morals that are non-infallible. This is a doctrinal matter, not a jurisdictional/governmental matter. The disagreement is over whether irregular couples are a proper object of blessing, and this pertains to faith & morals.
If, as you seem to believe, the pope were enforcing a jurisdictional judgment on the universal Church, then the content of Fernandez' clarifications and press release would make no sense whatsoever. This was the same problem your earlier theory encountered, where you thought the document was talking about blessing the individuals separately. Not a lot of the stuff you are throwing at the wall is sticking. Fernandez keeps greasing the wall.
No, the topic at hand is your incorrect ecclesiology.
Ott, Ludwig. Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma. 1955, pages 285 – 286:
...Completely irrelevant to the topic at hand, which is teachings of faith and morals that are non-infallible. This is a doctrinal matter, not a jurisdictional/governmental matter. The disagreement is over whether irregular couples are a proper object of blessing, and this pertains to faith & morals.
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