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Philip would absolutely have known about Acts 1:5. He was hand picked as one of the seven deacons along with Stephen who became the first Christian martyr. Philip was being directly led by the Holy Spirit, yet you claim he must have been ignorant.
I already responded to that earlier.
AND this will. be the third time that I have answered and how are you missing me and here we begin again !!
But what does the fact that Gaius and Aristarchus were fellow travellers of Paul have to do with how Paul baptised Crispus, Gaius and the household of Stephanas?
And by the HOLY SPIRIT Paul wrote ::
Two things strike me. First, Acts 19:6 is about Christians at Ephesus, not Gaius (who came from Derbe), Crispus (from Corinth) or the household of Stephanas (also from Corinth). Second, the laying on of hands did not impart the Holy Spirit, like some sort of magical procedure. Laying on of hands is nowhere called the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
Also, they were baptised first, and then Paul laid hands on them, after which they received the Holy Spirit. So clearly their baptism was not a "baptism of the Holy Spirit", since they did not receive the Holy Spirit until after, and the only other baptism described in Scripture involves water.
And in Act 19:6. ays and PAL LAID HANDS upon. them THEV HOLY SPIRT. came upon them and they were
So tell me Dan. Are you saying that one Christian can baptise another Christian with the baptism of the Holy Spirit?
#1 AND // KAI is a CONJUNCTION
Instead of reposting Bible verses with the sentences split up, and many words written in capital letters, why can you not simply answer the question I asked: With what baptism did Paul baptise Crispus, Gaius and the household of Sephanas? If you say, "with the baptism of the Holy Spirit," I would further ask, how can a man (in this case Paul) baptise anybody with the Holy Spirit?
# 0 IN Rom 16:23 reads from. KJV !!
Almost all the ancient heresies quoted Scripture to support their beliefs. It was not the Scripture that was wrong but instead their erroneous interpretation of those Scriptures. Posting a verse without explaining how you interpret it proves nothing, only that you probably interpret those Scriptures differently to how others interpret them.
What case? My post was about Acts 19:6 being about Christians at Ephesus, not Gaius (who came from Derbe), Crispus (from Corinth) or the household of Stephanas (also from Corinth), and that the laying on of hands is not the actual baptism of the Holy Spirit. How does quoting Romans 16:23, slitting it up and giving a grammatical analysis of it in CAPITAL LETTERS, answer either of my points? As I understand it, Paul was in Corinth when he wrote Romans, staying with Gaius, who came from there. The verse says nothing that answers my first point ( about Acts 19:6 referring to Christians at Ephesus) or my second (about the laying on of hands not being the actual baptism of the Holy Spirit).
