David1701
God is good!
- Sep 28, 2020
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I was, of course, referring to the N.T. AS A WHOLE, not merely the gospels. As I posted, Jerome could hardly avoid making a new translation and/or revision (of the whole N.T.), because there was no single standard Latin text, until his Latin Vulgate.I did not claim that Jerome "made no new translation/revision of the Latin" and am unsure how you came away with this conclusion given I stated the opposite:
Another reason this seems questionable is the fact I don't see how it could be true, because Jerome didn't make any new translation of 1 John. Jerome did a revision of the Latin Gospels, but that was it for him in regards to the New Testament. He didn't make any new translation, or even revision, of the other books in the New Testament, so there could not have been an outcry against him regarding a translation he didn't do. Jerome did make a new translation, but that was of the Old Testament, where he (unlike prior Latin translators) translated from the Hebrew rather than the Greek.
So I did not claim he made no new translation/revision of the Latin; I explicitly mention Jerome did a revision of the Gospels in the New Testament. But he didn't do revisions of the rest of the books in the New Testament, even if that is unfortunately a claim a number of people make. There was a revision of those other books in Latin, but it wasn't by Jerome, but someone else. This is why Galatians 5:9 in the Vetus Latina and Latin Vulgate uses a Latin translation that Jerome criticizes in his commentary on Galatians.
In any event, you answered my question, so I suppose we can move on given this subforum is for answering questions of inquirers rather than debating. But I wanted to make clear what it was I actually said.
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