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Additions to the Bible?

David1701

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I did not claim that Jerome "made no new translation/revision of the Latin" and am unsure how you came away with this conclusion given I stated the opposite:

Another reason this seems questionable is the fact I don't see how it could be true, because Jerome didn't make any new translation of 1 John. Jerome did a revision of the Latin Gospels, but that was it for him in regards to the New Testament. He didn't make any new translation, or even revision, of the other books in the New Testament, so there could not have been an outcry against him regarding a translation he didn't do. Jerome did make a new translation, but that was of the Old Testament, where he (unlike prior Latin translators) translated from the Hebrew rather than the Greek.

So I did not claim he made no new translation/revision of the Latin; I explicitly mention Jerome did a revision of the Gospels in the New Testament. But he didn't do revisions of the rest of the books in the New Testament, even if that is unfortunately a claim a number of people make. There was a revision of those other books in Latin, but it wasn't by Jerome, but someone else. This is why Galatians 5:9 in the Vetus Latina and Latin Vulgate uses a Latin translation that Jerome criticizes in his commentary on Galatians.

In any event, you answered my question, so I suppose we can move on given this subforum is for answering questions of inquirers rather than debating. But I wanted to make clear what it was I actually said.
I was, of course, referring to the N.T. AS A WHOLE, not merely the gospels. As I posted, Jerome could hardly avoid making a new translation and/or revision (of the whole N.T.), because there was no single standard Latin text, until his Latin Vulgate.
 
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JSRG

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I was, of course, referring to the N.T. AS A WHOLE, not merely the gospels. As I posted, Jerome could hardly avoid making a new translation and/or revision (of the whole N.T.), because there was no single standard Latin text, until his Latin Vulgate.
But he didn't make a new translation or revision of the entire New Testament. He only did that for the Gospels. That's my whole point. The revision of the other New Testament books from the Vetus Latina into the Latin Vulgate was done by someone else (their identity is unknown), though the idea that Jerome did the whole thing is a common misconception.
 
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David1701

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But he didn't make a new translation or revision of the entire New Testament. He only did that for the Gospels. That's my whole point. The revision of the other New Testament books from the Vetus Latina into the Latin Vulgate was done by someone else (their identity is unknown), though the idea that Jerome did the whole thing is a common misconception.
It doesn't matter who did it. The point is that it was done.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Apparently Mark was written first, then Luke and Matthew, then John.

Anyway here is the original ending to Mark:


The NIV says this:

Then there is the story of the stoning of the adulteress:


In my 2011 NIV red letter Bible the text in that story is black italics even though the words of Jesus are meant to be in red.

There is also this NIV footnote:

I think Jack Chick uses this as an example of why the NIV is corrupted and the true Bible translation is the KJV. [7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.]

What do Christians think? Are the additions as inspired as the original? Or were the apparent additions really part of the original?
Please don't use Jack Chick as a source for anything. He was not a Biblical Scholar and was often in error.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Sometimes my sister quotes this:

Revelation 22:18-19

The KJV says "this book". She assumes it means the Bible but I think it is referring to just the book of Revelation.
You are right brother it is the Revelation.

Proverbs 30:6
6 vDo not add to his words,

lest he rebuke you and you be found a liar.


Deuteronomy 4:2
2 yYou shall not add to the word that I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God that I command you.


Deuteronomy 12:32
32 “Everything that I command you, you shall be careful to do. pYou shall not add to it or take from it.

Remember these OT verses only applies to their context.
 
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JSRG

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It doesn't matter who did it. The point is that it was done.
Your claim specifically was that Jerome did it, and to say that Jerome got criticism for how he handled that part of 1 John. Whether it was Jerome was important to the specific claim you were making.

Still, you answered my question about where the claim came from (you said you couldn't remember), which was my main question.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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The subject of "additions" are the result of different manuscripts, when they were found vs when they were used and were the found as rejected manuscripts or highly prized ones.

Sometimes what is termed "an older manuscript" is taken but should be rejected. The reason is that the so called older manuscript was not used in prior years because it was corrupt. Then they lose the manuscript they were using and now the older corrupt manuscript "is the older" of the ones we now have.

Erasmus collected the various manuscripts available in his day and then published "the received text" -- Textus Receptus. That is the one that NKJV and KJV are based on.

the printed editions of the Greek New Testament which served as the primary foundation for the Reformation-era Bible translations, including the King James Version (KJV)

It is newer than Sinaiticus and Vaticanus (Egyptian 4th centurty manuscripts that NASB NIV and others are based on )


  • Codex Vaticanus: Dated to around 325–350 AD, it has been housed in the Vatican Library since at least the 15th century. [1, 2, 3, 4]
  • Codex Sinaiticus: Also dated to the mid-4th century (330–360 AD). Discovered in the mid-19th century by Constantine Tischendorf at St. Catherine's Monastery in the Sinai Peninsula, portions of it were rescued from a monastic trash pile. [1, 2, 3, 4]
  • Textus Receptus (Received Text): A printed Greek text compiled by scholars like Desiderius Erasmus in the early 16th century. It was the first widely published Greek New Testament, relying on a handful of later, medieval Byzantine manuscripts (primarily from the 12th to 15th centuries)
Some of the so called "older manuscripts) were found crumpled up and in the trash. They were not used until more recent times.

 
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Daniel Marsh

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I believe the words “this book” refers to the entire Bible.
Understanding Revelation requires the use and understanding of passages found throughout the entire Bible. The view of Revelation is a Bible-view, a full Bible view, which leads me to believe “this book” refers to the Bible.
However, because Revelation draws on passages from the entire Bible, taking from or adding to the Book of Revelation would probably result in equal outcome..
This refers to itself, not other books.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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In this case it matters, as your claim specifically was that Jerome did it, and to say that Jerome got criticism for how he handled that part of 1 John. It being Jerome was important to the claim you were making.
I wonder what Church Fathers quote those texts?
 
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David1701

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JohnClay

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Something else about the original (or shorter) ending of Mark:
16:5 As they entered the tomb, they saw a young man dressed in a white robe sitting on the right side, and they were alarmed
It says "they saw" a young man, not that "it looked like" a young man. And it doesn't say the white robe was glowing. But in the other gospels, which were written later, it says they saw an angel and in Luke 24:23 "they had seen a vision of angels". Perhaps a vision suggests they weren't just using ordinary sight.
In Mark it seems angels were only present during Jesus' temptation in the wilderness.
 
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throughfierytrial

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This refers to itself, not other books.
I no longer believe you can authoritatively state that. Revelation ends with warnings of adding or subtracting as is stated/warned in passages throughout the entire Bible. It seems a very cohesive line of thought and as the interpretation of Revelation requires the Spirit and through that Spirit a thorough knowledge of Scripture, I now conclude it refers to the Bible in its entirety.

I don’t believe any one person holds the full interpretation, though some Christians have more than others. Once you see the interpretation unfold… which is through use of Bible passages (with the correct context, usage and understanding) one can more readily add to one’s learning through others, but you can also discard some or all of many other interpretations… simply because they contradict Scripture itself.
 
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BobRyan

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I no longer believe you can authoritatively state that. Revelation ends with warnings of adding or subtracting as is stated/warned in passages throughout the entire Bible. It seems a very cohesive line of thought and as the interpretation of Revelation requires the Spirit and through that Spirit a thorough knowledge of Scripture, I now conclude it refers to the Bible in its entirety.
John is writing at the end of the first century so he likely knows that his work is the last that is to be included in the canon of scripture.
(Although arguably he adds the Gospel of John after writing the book of Revelation)
 
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PloverWing

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John is writing at the end of the first century so he likely knows that his work is the last that is to be included in the canon of scripture.
(Although arguably he adds the Gospel of John after writing the book of Revelation)

Mmm, I dunno. Would John have been in a position to know that his book would be included but that the Didache, for example, would be excluded? I don't see how he could have known the final roster of books that would be chosen for the New Testament.
 
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throughfierytrial

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Mmm, I dunno. Would John have been in a position to know that his book would be included but that the Didache, for example, would be excluded? I don't see how he could have known the final roster of books that would be chosen for the New Testament.
God who governs the actions of man… such as canonizing the Scriptures…foresaw that work.
 
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throughfierytrial

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John is writing at the end of the first century so he likely knows that his work is the last that is to be included in the canon of scripture.
(Although arguably he adds the Gospel of John after writing the book of Revelation)
John was quite unaware of the meaning of much he heard and saw…at least so it seems to me.
Just as an aside, speaking to the matter of Scripture dates, there may be a reason for the omissions. It may be all well and good I suppose. One wouldn’t want to build a doctrine based upon a date you have to search for outside the Bible…may serve to corrupt the message in the word.
 
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CIA Agent #1029

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I no longer believe you can authoritatively state that. Revelation ends with warnings of adding or subtracting as is stated/warned in passages throughout the entire Bible. It seems a very cohesive line of thought and as the interpretation of Revelation requires the Spirit and through that Spirit a thorough knowledge of Scripture, I now conclude it refers to the Bible in its entirety.

I don’t believe any one person holds the full interpretation, though some Christians have more than others. Once you see the interpretation unfold… which is through use of Bible passages (with the correct context, usage and understanding) one can more readily add to one’s learning through others, but you can also discard some or all of many other interpretations… simply because they contradict Scripture itself.
You're right about the book. But I'll present some big questions to make you think:

1. The Codex Sinaiticus (330-360 AD) says "bibliou" where it says "this book" in revelation 22. But the bible (the bible) was only compiled in 397 AD, years after. It couldn't refer to a bible that hadn't been written yet. So does it refer to just revelation?

2. The bible was recompiled multiple times. According to Gemini:

The final completion date depends slightly on the Christian tradition, as different denominations read different versions today: [1]
  • Protestant Bibles (66 books): Re-finalized in 1647 CE with the Westminster Confession, which permanently removed seven Old Testament books (the Apocrypha).
  • Catholic Bibles (73 books): Infallibly locked in 1546 CE at the Council of Trent to officially include the Deuterocanonical books.
  • Orthodox Bibles (up to 81 books): Formally unified in 1672 CE at the Synod of Jerusalem, including additional ancient texts
Not to mention the schisms and wars.

It seems like people add and remove from the bible as they like?

3. So it should be fine to remove and add from the bible, as long as you don't touch revelation. But that's illogical, what's the point of the bible then. Is God illogical?
 
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throughfierytrial

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Yes, I understand and yet we have our Protestant Bible to this day.

But No, we cannot add or subtract from any of the Word of God that which is not Revelation as well. Scripture itself testifies to this. I cited passages previously already, but here is a sampling:
Deuteronomy 4:2
Proverbs 30:6
I Corinthians 4:6
II Peter 3:16

More proof Scripture passages can be found sprinkled throughout the Bible however.

Revelation is a revelation and as such (we see from books like Daniel) require interpretation and Revelation is interpreted using an understanding of Scripture in its entirety. Bible passages are our clues.

As for historical facts on canonization of Scripture we learn the reason it was a work in progress for a long while is distortions and even contradictions were present so what was most-used Scripture by the early church was eventually canonized.

There’s more to that process, but that’s the short of it to my knowledge.

Godspeed!
 
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Valletta

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You're right about the book. But I'll present some big questions to make you think:

1. The Codex Sinaiticus (330-360 AD) says "bibliou" where it says "this book" in revelation 22. But the bible (the bible) was only compiled in 397 AD, years after. It couldn't refer to a bible that hadn't been written yet. So does it refer to just revelation?

2. The bible was recompiled multiple times. According to Gemini:


Not to mention the schisms and wars.

It seems like people add and remove from the bible as they like?

3. So it should be fine to remove and add from the bible, as long as you don't touch revelation. But that's illogical, what's the point of the bible then. Is God illogical?
The Catholic Church process of choosing the 73 books of the Bible, guided by the Holy Spirit, spanned centuries. Saint Athanasius is credited with the first Biblical canon (NT) containing the same books in the same order we use today. The list is contained in his Thirty-Ninth Festal Letter of 367 A.D. This list was approved by Pope Damasus, and formally approved in the late 300s by the Councils at Hippo (393 A.D.) and Carthage (397 A.D.) . Pope Innocent I wrote a letter to the Bishop of Toulouse in 405 A.D. containing the list. The list was re-affirmed at Carthage in 419 A.D., by the Council of Florence 1442 A.D., and by the Council of Trent in 1546 A.D. For Catholics the Bible is exactly the same as it was when the Catholic Church decided upon the books and the order in the late 300s.
 
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throughfierytrial

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I’ll point out that I Maccabees 9:27 states there were no prophets in the land… the silent years between OT and NT. The Apocryphal books the Catholics continue to carry in their Bibles are viewed as not inspired Scripture by Protestants and as such are not included in Protestants Bibles. Some Protestants read them as a separate set and view them as historical books, but some of the writings appear questionable… in the view of many.

The actions taken by the early popes as pertains to the Bible and you outlined does not carry weight with Protestants. Because, as I stated above, Protestants use those inspired Scripture known to have been preached and practiced by the very early/ancient church and in accordance with those manuscripts.

There is much more to be said on the topic to be sure, but the Protestant Bible should not be looked upon as suspect because it omits the Apocryphal books.

As a point in fact and in defense of these actions taken by Protestants, the OT names books which are not/were not recorded in OT such as the books containing the acts of kings.
 
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