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Do you eat pork?

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Hentenza

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Yes, the Law of the Spirit of Life, the God and Father of All, which was in Christ Jesus, that Paul said to Yield Myself a servant to obey, has freed me from the Law of Sin and Death (The wages of sin, is death, this is the law of sin)

Thank God for His mercy to give men another chance to honor Him and Glorify Him "As God".
“For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭2‬-‭3‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Your legalism is not scriptural but the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus that set the Christian free from the law of sin is quite scriptural.
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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abolished in His flesh the law of commandments in ordinances

how is this possible??
how does flesh abolish anything?? flesh is a physical temporary existence.
Got an answer to your puzzle that will not directly contradict what the scripture says?
 
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Maria Billingsley

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There are only two choices....

Rom 7: 25 I thank God—through Jesus Christ our Lord!

So then, with the mind I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh the law of sin.

If we are not serving the law of God, we are serving the law of sin.

I know it sounds good, I am in God's Spirit, but not doing what God asks, but in reality according to Paul this is what we are doing when we won;t subject ourselves to the law of God

Rom8:7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed can be. 8 So then, those who are in the flesh cannot please God

If we are in Christ, and subject ourselves to His Spirit- He enables us to keep His commandments which frees us from the law of sin and death because the wages of sin is death Rom6:23, which is breaking the law of God 1 John3:4 James 2:11

Receiving the Spirit is conditional

John 14:15 “If you love Me, keep My commandments. 16 And I will pray the Father, and He will give you another [e]Helper, that He may abide with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him; but you know Him, for He dwells with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you orphans; I will come to you.

Acts 5:32 And we are His witnesses to these things, and so also is the Holy Spirit whom God has given to those who obey Him.
You and I interact quite a bit. I would love to know your denomination so I can act accordingly in the future. I need to closely study your lens to understand. I thought you were SDA but you sound more like Hebrew Roots .
Thanks for sharing!
 
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Studyman

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“For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭2‬-‭3‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Your legalism is not scriptural but the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus that set the Christian free from the law of sin is quite scriptural.

The philosophy that Jesus kept His Flesh in subjection, and brought every thought into obedience of His Father, and cast off every imagination that exalted itself against the knowledge of God, so that you can live after the imaginations of your own heart, and reject any of God's judgments that you judge as unworthy of your honor and respect, is truly a seductive religion, and a path that "Many" have certainly adopted as their own.

But neither Paul nor Jesus, Nor the Prophets who offered the Gospel of Christ to Israel in the Exodus, promoted such a religion. In fact they all warned not to be deceived by the promoters of such a seductive religion.

So we are all free to ignore whatever instructions of God that doesn't sit well with the lusts of our flesh, but according to what is actually written, "The Faithful" are to "cast off every imagination that exalts itself against to knowledge of God. Jesus doesn't do that for us. at least not the Jesus "of the Bible".

So you can call me names, judge me for honoring God like my Lord did and instructed me to do, if that feeds your pride. Jesus knew this would happen, and warned me not to be surprised when it did.

I am always amazed at the wisdom and foresight of my Lord and Savior, who knew that the promoters of this world's religions would not judge me for rejecting God's instruction, but would judge me for promoting them.

It gives me goose bumps to this day.
 
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Hentenza

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The philosophy that Jesus kept His Flesh in subjection,
His flesh is not in subjection nor did I even suggest that so Strawman. The rest of your post follows from the faulty beginning.
 
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Delvianna

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You and I interact quite a bit. I would love to know your denomination so I can act accordingly in the future. I need to closely study your lens to understand. I thought you were SDA but you sound more like Hebrew Roots .
Thanks for sharing!
Out of curiosity, what does any of that have to do with her argument? Why can't you reply to her points? Her profile says SDA, so how does that change how you respond to the arguments she's making?
 
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BobRyan

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“One person esteems one day as better than another, while another (person) esteems all days alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind."

Why would I "Yield myself" a servant to obey the opinions of one person, who esteems a day, or another person who doesn't esteem a day? Paul certainly doesn't promote such a philosophy. I have wondered many times how this verse of Paul is used to justify rejecting God's Judgments. I don't understand how they come to that conclusion.
1. The text is referencing the Bible approved annual holy days of Lev 23
2 In Gal 4 God condemns the observance of even one of the pagan holy days
3. God also condemns not working at all ,, keeping all days as Holy and not available for secular work activities
4. the word "alike" is inserted , it is not actually in the manuscript text.

So then the text reads "one man observes one day above another while another man observes them all"

The text is referring to the Bible approved annual holy days and is saying that it does not matter if one chooses one above the others or if the person observes them all.

This is because Heb 10:3-11 has stated that the ceremonial system was removed at the cross. It did not "become evil" to observe ceremonial days at that point, but it did mean they were no longer needed.
 
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BobRyan

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The law of the Spirit of life in Jesus Christ of Nazareth has made me free from the law of sin and death.
Rom 7 defines the Law of Sin an death as the sinful nature. Paul does not condemn God's Law telling us not to take God's name in vain. As if our problem is that we are not being allowed to take God's name in vain.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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You and I interact quite a bit. I would love to know your denomination so I can act accordingly in the future. I need to closely study your lens to understand. I thought you were SDA but you sound more like Hebrew Roots .
Thanks for sharing!
I am SDA.

I think a lot of people try to separate the word of God from Old Testament to New Testament, but in doing we are missing the bigger message from God. God does not change. There are threads all throughout the entire Bible God is trying to show us and each one of them leads to obedience to God's commandments until the very end of time Rev22:14.

I posted this one on being a servant of God. The Servant of God: One Thread from Genesis to Revelation This is just one thread that's all throughout Scripture until the very end of time. Fear of God, love to God and doing what God deems a righteous are others. Sin remains the same throughout only how we seek forgiveness changed. If we understand these core threads, we can reconcile Scripture correctly, because something that God deems righteous Psa 119:172 Isa 56:1-2 never turns into unrighteousness and something God deems evil or unrighteous Isa 56:2 Neh13:17 never turns into righteousness it stays that way Rev22:11. God's righteousness is everlasting Psa 119:142 the foundation of His throne Psa 89:14 and when we test our ideas against what God says, its the way to correct our ideas instead of just running with them. The main difference are the promises Heb8:6 and where God placed His laws- from tablets of stone (outward) to tablets of the heart (inward) same law, because God does not make mistakes Psa19:7 Ecc3:14 Psa89:34 and He never had two different salvations, only one, grace by faith in Jesus which should lead to a complete transformation where obeying God is not a burden 1John5:3 but because we delight to do the will of God Psa40:8
 
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BobRyan

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Scripture itself teaches that the ceremonial precepts of the Mosaic Law have been abolished, set aside, and fulfilled in Christ, while the moral law remains. St Paul explicitly says the Old Covenant legislation was “set aside because of its weakness and uselessness” (Heb 7:18)
Heb 7:11-18 says the levitical priesthood is replaced by Christ's priesthood.
11 Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? 12 For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also. 13 For the one concerning whom these things are spoken belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the altar. 14 For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, a tribe with reference to which Moses spoke nothing concerning priests. 15 And this is clearer still, if another priest arises according to the likeness of Melchizedek, 16 who has become such not on the basis of a law of physical requirement, but according to the power of an indestructible life. 17 For it is attested of Him,

“You are a priest forever
According to the order of Melchizedek.”

18 For, on the one hand, there is a setting aside of a former commandment because of its weakness and uselessness 19 (for the Law made nothing perfect), and on the other hand there is a bringing in of a better hope, through which we draw near to God. 20 And inasmuch as it was not without an oath 21 (for they indeed became priests without an oath, but He with an oath through the One who said to Him,

“The Lord has sworn
And will not change His mind,
You are a priest forever’”);

22 so much the more also Jesus has become the guarantee of a better covenant.

23 The former priests, on the one hand, existed in greater numbers because they were prevented by death from continuing, 24 but Jesus, on the other hand, because He continues forever, holds His priesthood permanently. 25 Therefore He is able also to save forever those who draw near to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them.

26 For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens; 27 who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself. 28 For the Law appoints men as high priests who are weak, but the word of the oath, which came after the Law, appoints a Son, made perfect forever.

Heb 7 says nothing about the "old covenant"
and that God “abolished in His flesh the law of commandments in ordinances” (Eph 2:15).
Eph 2 is talking about the ceremonies that separate Jewish Christians from gentile Christians. It has nothing to do with deleting commandments such as "do not take God's name in vain". Nor does it argue that it is only a sin when Jews take God's name in vain but not a sin if gentiles do it.
He also teaches that Christians are not under the Mosaic law (Rom 6:14)
Rom 13 and Rom 7 quote the Mosaic Law and state that all mankind are judged as sinners by the Law that Christ affirms in Matt 19 and in Eph 6:1-2 and in Rom 7 where the Law of Moses says "do not covet" and in Matt 22 where the Law of Moses says "Love God with all your heart" Deut 6:5 and "love your neighbor as yourself" Lev 19:18
and that the food laws in particular have been cancelled: “Let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food… these are a shadow… but the substance belongs to Christ” (Col 2:16–17). Christ Himself declared all foods clean (Mark 7:19)
Mark 7 is a dispute about eating BREAD bought in the market place. not meat. The issue is the customs of the Pharisees as Mark 7 points out. There is no OT rule about bread being "unclean".

You are taking things out of context
, and the apostles—under the Holy Spirit—refused to impose the Mosaic code on Gentile believers (Acts 15:28–29).
Acts 15:1-2 says the subject it about the invented idea of some Christians that gentiles had to be circumcised in order to be saved. The chapter rejects that teaching but it does not say that gentiles can ignore the commandments ... no one is argue that it is ok for gentiles to take God's name in vain but not ok for Jews.

You are taking the chapter out of context.
 
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Hentenza

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1. The text is referencing the Bible approved annual holy days of Lev 23
2 In Gal 4 God condemns the observance of even one of the pagan holy days
3. God also condemns not working at all ,, keeping all days as Holy and not available for secular work activities
4. the word "alike" is inserted , it is not actually in the manuscript text.

So then the text reads "one man observes one day above another while another man observes them all"

The text is referring to the Bible approved annual holy days and is saying that it does not matter if one chooses one above the others or if the person observes them all.

This is because Heb 10:3-11 has stated that the ceremonial system was removed at the cross. It did not "become evil" to observe ceremonial days at that point, but it did mean they were no longer needed.
“One person values one day over another, another values every day the same. Each person must be fully convinced in his own mind. The one who observes the day, observes it for the Lord, and the one who eats, does so with regard to the Lord, for he gives thanks to God; and the one who does not eat, it is for the Lord that he does not eat, and he gives thanks to God.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭14‬:‭5‬-‭6‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

No ceremonial law here.

Secondly, the context of Romans 14:2-3, preceding Romans 14:5, focuses on dietary practices. Traditional Jews adhere to Kosher food laws, while Gentiles don't. Consequently, in a church comprising both Jews and Gentiles, differing eating practices lead to issues. In addition, Jews observe the Sabbath, which is unfamiliar to the Gentiles, leading to additional complications. This is what Romans 14:5 refers to, as Jews consider the Sabbath more sacred than other days, while faithful Gentiles view every day as holy.
 
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Studyman

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1. The text is referencing the Bible approved annual holy days of Lev 23

Bob, you have no evidence to support this statement. Are you saying that the only high days that ever existed in the religions of the world, are listed in Lev. 23?


2 In Gal 4 God condemns the observance of even one of the pagan holy days

But what if you are a new convert, and you Mom and Dad and grandparents observed pagan high days? Are you going to kick him out of Gods church? Or will you show the weak in faith the difference between God's Holy days and the high days of this world, and let him be convinced in his own mind, what day to esteem above other days?
3. God also condemns not working at all ,, keeping all days as Holy and not available for secular work activities
I get it, there are a bunch of HUGE religious businesses in this world that God placed me in, that have invested tithes and offerings into the world's healthcare, education, finance and many other business ventures. And these businesses need workers to keep them viable 24/7. So I can see how detrimental it would be to many this world's religious sects and businesses to "do no servile work". I mean, I'm sure the promoters of these religions do no servile work on the Sabbath days, but others are certainly required to do so. How else would the religious businesses stay afloat?


4. the word "alike" is inserted , it is not actually in the manuscript text.

So then the text reads "one man observes one day above another while another man observes them all"

The text is referring to the Bible approved annual holy days and is saying that it does not matter if one chooses one above the others or if the person observes them all.

This is because Heb 10:3-11 has stated that the ceremonial system was removed at the cross. It did not "become evil" to observe ceremonial days at that point, but it did mean they were no longer needed.
 
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BobRyan

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“One person values one day over another, another values every day the same. Each person must be fully convinced in his own mind
"The same" is not in the manuscript. It is inserted by the compilers

1. The text is referencing the Bible approved annual holy days of Lev 23
2 In Gal 4 God condemns the observance of even one of the pagan holy days
3. God also condemns not working at all ,, keeping all days as Holy and not available for secular work activities
4. the word "alike" is inserted , it is not actually in the manuscript text.

So then the text reads "one man observes one day above another while another man observes them all"

The text is referring to the Bible approved annual holy days and is saying that it does not matter if one chooses one above the others or if the person observes them all.


The one who observes the day, observes it for the Lord,
The text defends observing all the Bible approved annual holy days listed in Lev 23.

Gal 4 condemns observing even ONE of the pagan holy days as noted above


Gal 4:
8 However at that time, when you did not know God, (as former pagans) you were slaves to those which by nature are no gods. 9 But now that you have come to know God, or rather to be known by God, how is it that you turn back again to the weak and worthless elemental things (turn back to pagan days of worship) , to which you desire to be enslaved all over again? 10 You observe days and months and seasons and years. 11 I fear for you, that perhaps I have labored over you in vain.

Paul says that when former pagans turn back again to their pagan days of worship they canel their Christian position.

Rom 14 is not defending the pagan days of worship that are already condemned in Gal 4.

Paying attention to the full detail of Paul's teaching is not simply "a nice to have". It is necessary

The term "Sabbath" does not appear at all in Rom 14
 
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BobRyan

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Bob, you have no evidence to support this statement. Are you saying that the only high days that ever existed in the religions of the world, are listed in Lev. 23?
No I am saying that the worlds days of worship are condemned in Gal 4.
Lev 23 has Bible approved annual holy days of worship and Rom 14 agrees that some keep them all while others observe one above the others.

In the book of Acts Paul is seen keeping some of those Lev 23 days.
But what if you are a new convert, and you Mom and Dad and grandparents observed pagan high days? Are you going to kick him out of Gods church?
Paul condemns a Christian that goes back to his pagan roots of observing certain pagan holy days in Gal 4


Gal 4:
8 However at that time, when you did not know God, (as former pagans) you were slaves to those which by nature are no gods. 9 But now that you have come to know God, or rather to be known by God, how is it that you turn back again to the weak and worthless elemental things (turn back to pagan days of worship) , to which you desire to be enslaved all over again? 10 You observe days and months and seasons and years. 11 I fear for you, that perhaps I have labored over you in vain.

Paul argues that observing those pagan days again after having become Christian , is to reject Christianity
Or will you show the weak in faith the difference between God's Holy days and the high days of this world, and let him be convinced in his own mind, what day to esteem above other days?
In Rom 14 the one "weak in the faith" eats vegetables only.

Receive one who is weak in the faith, but not to disputes over doubtful things. 2 For one believes he may eat all things, but he who is weak eats only vegetables.

There is no OT command for Jews to "eat vegetables only" and gentiles certainly did not have that practice.

He is talking about a former pagan who being weak in faith when it comes to things sacrificed to idols, chooses to eat vegetables only as in the case of 1 Cor 8. Paul says he himself would eat vegetables only if that was needed to protect a gentile weak in the faith from stumbling. See 1 Cor 8 and 1 Cor 10.

But Rom 14 does not say "the one weak in the faith observes one day above another"
And it does not say "the one weak in the faith observes every day"
 
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Hentenza

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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:


"The same" is not in the manuscript. It is inserted by the compilers
Which is irrelevant.
you keep posting it as if you believe it needs to be inserted. It doesn't

stick to the facts.
 
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BobRyan

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"The same" is not in the manuscript. It is inserted by the compilers

1. The text is referencing the Bible approved annual holy days of Lev 23
2 In Gal 4 God condemns the observance of even one of the pagan holy days
3. God also condemns not working at all ,, keeping all days as Holy and not available for secular work activities
4. the word "alike" is inserted , it is not actually in the manuscript text.

So then the text reads "one man observes one day above another while another man observes them all"

The text is referring to the Bible approved annual holy days and is saying that it does not matter if one chooses one above the others or if the person observes them all.
Nope. You made that up.

Consider reading a tiny bit more
 
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Carl Emerson

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Paul said we are servants to whom we obey. Didn't the Jesus "of the Bible", promote that we obey God? If not, then in your religion, who shall we "Yield ourselves" servants to obey?
Jesus and God the Father are one.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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I am SDA.

I think a lot of people try to separate the word of God from Old Testament to New Testament, but in doing we are missing the bigger message from God. God does not change. There are threads all throughout the entire Bible God is trying to show us and each one of them leads to obedience to God's commandments until the very end of time Rev22:14.

I posted this one on being a servant of God. The Servant of God: One Thread from Genesis to Revelation This is just one thread that's all throughout Scripture until the very end of time. Fear of God, love to God and doing what God deems a righteous are others. If we understand these core threads, we can reconcile Scripture correctly, because something that God deems righteous Psa 119:172 Isa 56:1-2 never turns into unrighteousness and something God deems evil or unrighteous Isa 56:2 Neh13:17 never turns into righteousness it stays that way Rev22:11. God's righteousness is everlasting Psa 119:142 the foundation of His throne Psa 89:14 and when we test our ideas against what God says, its the way to correct our ideas instead of just running with them. The main difference are the promises Heb8:6 and where God placed His laws- from tablets of stone (outward) to tablets of the heart (inward) same law, because God does not make mistakes Psa19:7 Ecc3:14 Psa89:34 and He never had two different salvations, only one, grace by faith in Jesus which should lead to a complete transformation where obeying God is not a burden 1John5:3 but because we delight to do the will of God Psa40:8
Ok thank you. I use my phone and for some reason no one's denomination shows up. A laptop is different. Strange.

Thank you again!
 

Hentenza

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BobRyan said:


"The same" is not in the manuscript. It is inserted by the compilers

you keep posting it as if you believe it needs to be inserted. It doesn't
It is irrelevant. The word was inserted by the KJV editors and remains even in the critical text versions. The word does not change the meaning of the sentence just provides the logical ending.
stick to the facts.
I have but you have to give me some.
 
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