True or false, Christ tasted death for everyone. Hebrews 2:9
Again, interpreting a verse on an island is not the proper way to to read the Bible. We need context to do that. Context is why the correct interpretation cannot be seen by the natural mind. 1 Corinthians 2:19.
So, to answer your question, my definition of 'tasted death for everyone' is different from yours. My definition is that by tasting death (since He didn't stay dead), He made salvation available for every man who comes to faith. Yours is that He died for every man, literally making atonement for every man, and making man dead to Adam, and in some middle ground neutral state between death in Adam and life in Christ. But that neutral ground doesn't exist in Scripture. In fact it's hostile to it. And the death and life are inseparable, they happen almost simultaneously when we are placed into Christ. First the death, always followed by the life. The atonement, the death to Adam, the life from the indwelling Spirit, are all the result being in Christ, which is the result of faith. We are crucified with Christ when we are in Christ.
Atonement is the result of faith.
Romans 3:25-26 whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
And, one can't have the death of the old man without the life of the new man since we are placed into that death, and life, as a result of being placed into Christ Jesus by faith.
Romans 6:5 "For if we ( believers ) have been united together in the likeness of His death, certainly we (same believers) *also shall* be in the likeness of His resurrection,
You see, you are reading something into that Hebrew text that it doesn't say. On top of that, your idea is hostile to the rest of Scripture. You're trying to use half truth to set a false narrative by limiting my answer to "true or false". That's not always the case, but in this case that's the only conclusion I can come to since you guys also ignore context, both immediate and of the whole Bible.
Watch, I'll show you. The first part sounds like a slam dunk right? But we see the same John say the same thing in his Gospel and Epistle, and we get clarity on what he meant. The words all and world sometimes do not mean every individual. Sometimes is means Jew and Gentile. Sometimes it means believers scattered abroad. Remember, for the most part, the Bible was written by Jews to Jews. Context....
1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that
Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins,
and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
John 11:51-52 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52
and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only
but also for the whole world.
John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only,
but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
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In that same way, approach Hebrews 2:9, with caution, and with context.
Dave