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New not renewed Covenant

HIM

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..I will establish a new covenant..." v9 "...not like the covenant that I made with their fathers..." So there is a covenant established, then a new covenant will be established, unlike the former. It seems pretty spelt out here,

Yep that was shared also.

this is disengaging from the point. The language used is new covenant vs not like the former and in Hebrews it continues this new/old contrast

Disengaging? No, what I said was it was shared already. Here is the post
As was said before God says Law. This includes the commandments but is not inclusive to just.

They broke the covenant. This the second covenant according to verse 6. It can’t be the second if it is renewed. As was said and is written, The first was defaulted by the Israelites therefore the second is needed. Notice the first is also vanishing away in verse 13 not vanished

Why is that?

Hebrews 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
Hebrews 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
 
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DamianWarS

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Yes

No your translation calls it obsolete.

The actual text says being old, growing old is near disappearing.

You are saying more than what is stated.

Saying the destruction of the Temple has something to do with this ignores the fact that the Covenant changed upon the resurrection and Jesus' assent.

I'll quote the NASB since it's a bit more literal (these are not "my translations") but I'll highlight the word in protest since NASB also uses obsolete

Heb 8:13
When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first [obsolete/old]. But whatever is becoming [obsolete/old] and growing old is about to disappear.

the verb root is παλαιόω = to make old, declare obsolete, age, wear out. the text uses 2 different forms however.

the latter is "becoming-old" which seems to be the definition you are drawn to

the former is πεπαλαίωκεν or "He-has-made-old" [the first].

-παλαίω- is the stem, which means something old or ancient (and you agree with)

the prefix however πε- is the perfect tense showing a completed action. so πε-παλαίω- carries a meaning of a completed old.

-κ- is another perfect tense marker

-εν is the third person maker

so together carries a meaning of he has made old, he has rendered obsolete, he has worn out. The interesting part is it does not age by itself, but it is a completed action of making old performed on it by Christ. Christ has made old the covenant. Obsolete is a bit specific more abstract word, and a very English way of putting it, but once you break down the word, it's what the meaning is in practice.

I speak a different language (Melayu), and it translates it saying in the sense of "already make old/outdated. Some translations use the word for old some use the word of outdated. Both carry the sense this is a completed action already performed on the object.

I'm happy to leave it more literal "he has made old" but I fail to see how that changes the meaning since it's not old because of years gone by, but it is old because Christ made it old, in this sense it is ordained old, with the new being presented along side of it also ordained new. Obsolete/replacement are images that naturally come to mind but I get if you perhaps have an allergy towards "abolish" language. To be clear, Jesus is not abolishing, he is making old, but he also makes new and shows a better way.

This reminds me of the language in Rom 7:6 "we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit" again an aggregated word and loaded "we-have-been-released" (κατηργήθημεν) and like Heb 8:13 we do not do the releasing. We were made free from law by Christ, Christ is the one doing the releasing and he is the one also that makes it old. "so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit"
 
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Soyeong

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Yes

No, it spoken in the present tense not future.
I don't see how you can read Deuteronomy 30:1-10 and think that it is speaking about the present tense when it repeatedly speaks about what will happen.


It would be more aptly put that we are of the Torah rather than following it. It is part of who we are in Christ, for it is in our hearts and minds we are of the same Spirit. It is He that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure.

The old will be until sin is no more. For it shows those of us who are outside what sin is.

Hence it stating Heb 8:13 that it is old, growing old and ready to vanish away and not has vanished.
What do you see as the difference between being of the Torah and being followers of it? The New Covenant still involves following the Torah (Hebrews 8:10) regardless of whether or not the Mosaic Covenant has vanished since then.

Yes

We follow the Torah through the Spirit through Christ.
We are dead but alive. Yet not us, but Christ lives in us and the life we now live in the flesh we live by the Faith OF the Son of God who gave Himself for us.
Everything that God has commanded in the Torah teaches us how to walk in the Spirit, which is why the Spirit has the role of leading us to obey it. The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact likeness of His character (Hebrews 1:3), which he embodied through his works by setting a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Torah, so that is also the way that we get to live when he is living in us, which is living by faith both of and in the Son.
 
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HIM

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I don't see how you can read Deuteronomy 30:1-10 and think that it is speaking about the present tense when it repeatedly speaks about what will happen.
Not sure why you stoped at 10, Verse 14 is in the present tense.
 
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HIM

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Everything that God has commanded in the Torah teaches us how to walk in the Spirit, which is why the Spirit has the role of leading us to obey it. The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact likeness of His character (Hebrews 1:3), which he embodied through his works by setting a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Torah, so that is also the way that we get to live when he is living in us, which is living by faith both of and in the Son.
We walk through the Spirit by the Spirit not by the Torah. It is God that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure.
 
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HIM

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What do you see as the difference between being of the Torah and being followers of it? The New Covenant still involves following the Torah (Hebrews 8:10) regardless of whether or not the Mosaic Covenant has vanished since then
We are a new creature. Old things have passed away, behold all is new and of God. Know you not that we who have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ and have risen with Him in His resurrection that the old man be destroyed that hence forth we do not serve sin. For He that is dead is freed from sin. So let's walk after the Spirit and not after the flesh, that the righteousness of the Law (Torah) be fulfilled in us.
 
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HIM

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I'll quote the NASB since it's a bit more literal (these are not "my translations") but I'll highlight the word in protest since NASB also uses obsolete

Heb 8:13
When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first [obsolete/old]. But whatever is becoming [obsolete/old] and growing old is about to disappear.

the verb root is παλαιόω = to make old, declare obsolete, age, wear out. the text uses 2 different forms however.

the latter is "becoming-old" which seems to be the definition you are drawn to

the former is πεπαλαίωκεν or "He-has-made-old" [the first].

-παλαίω- is the stem, which means something old or ancient (and you agree with)

the prefix however πε- is the perfect tense showing a completed action. so πε-παλαίω- carries a meaning of a completed old.

-κ- is another perfect tense marker

-εν is the third person maker

so together carries a meaning of he has made old, he has rendered obsolete, he has worn out. The interesting part is it does not age by itself, but it is a completed action of making old performed on it by Christ. Christ has made old the covenant. Obsolete is a bit specific more abstract word, and a very English way of putting it, but once you break down the word, it's what the meaning is in practice.

I speak a different language (Melayu), and it translates it saying in the sense of "already make old/outdated. Some translations use the word for old some use the word of outdated. Both carry the sense this is a completed action already performed on the object.

I'm happy to leave it more literal "he has made old" but I fail to see how that changes the meaning since it's not old because of years gone by, but it is old because Christ made it old, in this sense it is ordained old, with the new being presented along side of it also ordained new. Obsolete/replacement are images that naturally come to mind but I get if you perhaps have an allergy towards "abolish" language. To be clear, Jesus is not abolishing, he is making old, but he also makes new and shows a better way.
Yes old not obsolete as was shown to you.

Why old and not obsolete?

Because it is ready to vanish away, not vanished.

Why Because by the Law is the knowledge of sin and there is still a need in the world for the knowledge of sin because not all who profess are and there are still many who need to come to Christ.


This reminds me of the language in Rom 7:6 "we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit" again an aggregated word and loaded "we-have-been-released" (κατηργήθημεν) and like Heb 8:13 we do not do the releasing. We were made free from law by Christ, Christ is the one doing the releasing and he is the one also that makes it old. "so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit"
If we walk in the Spirit we are not sinning.

So what need is there of the law. The Law is for transgressors.
 
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HIM

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Heb 8:13
When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first [obsolete/old]. But whatever is becoming [obsolete/old] and growing old is about to disappear.

the verb root is παλαιόω = to make old, declare obsolete, age, wear out. the text uses 2 different forms however.

the latter is "becoming-old" which seems to be the definition you are drawn to

the former is πεπαλαίωκεν or "He-has-made-old" [the first].

-παλαίω- is the stem, which means something old or ancient (and you agree with)

the prefix however πε- is the perfect tense showing a completed action. so πε-παλαίω- carries a meaning of a completed old.

-κ- is another perfect tense marker

-εν is the third person maker
Nice work by the way. Are you fluent?
 
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DamianWarS

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Yes old not obsolete as was shown to you.
old is not enough and lacks transparency of the text, if you disagree with "obsolete" that's fine, but you need to take more time to unpack the context more and it can't be left at "old". We also need to appreciate that "obsolete" may still be a reasonable translation for "πεπαλαίωκεν" and no perfect word exists (old is certainly not it either) as each translated word carries a drifting nuance. Call it what you want, but it is a completed action of "making old" by Christ. I think obsolete captures this, at least for the first 2 instances of the word in the text, where the latter is "become-old". You've collapsed the meaning to the latter use and have ignored former 2 instances.
Are you fluent?
I am well studied
 
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