1 Timothy 2:12-14 is probably the only passage in the Bible that I find severely challenging. That isn't because I dislike its contents or because it doesn't match with what I've been taught previously, but it's because I simply cannot figure out how to get it to fit with the rest of Scripture. It feels as if I had a car where all the pieces perfectly fit together, except for this one weird thing that just refuses to go in its spot no matter how I try to put it in. I don't know if there is any good way to get it to fit, so I decided to come here and see what others think of my attempts to get it to work.
Quoting from the NKJV (including verse 11 for good measure):
I think the intent of this verse is fairly clear and hard to get around without twisting the text. Women having authority over men is forbidden, as is women teaching men. Silence is encouraged in at least some contexts (which contexts isn't spelled out in full detail, but one assumes it would be in any context where authority or learning was part of the picture). Two justifications for these restrictions are given; the order of creation (man being made first and therefore being considered superior in at least these specific contexts), and the fact that the first woman was instrumental in the fall of man. It's also worth looking at the last verse of the chapter, "Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control." The author encourages the women he's talking about, that despite their being considered inferior to men in some ways, they can still be saved (AFAICT this is talking about salvation in the typical Christian sense), provided they accept their role as mothers and exhibit four key virtues. I think this is the most straightforward reading of the passage, if I'm wrong on something here please let me know.
I do not see an easy way for this verse to apply only in the context of one church. The author of this passage renders that impossible when he uses the order of creation as his argument. It makes no sense to argue that specific women in a specific area of the world should refrain from doing something, because the first woman to exist did something wrong. The only way Eve is connected to the situation at all is because she is the mother of all humans, including the women being written to, so I think it's evident that the author meant this to apply universally. It's also hard to argue that this applies only in the context of church; if you read the preceding verses of 1 Timothy 2, Paul is talking clearly about what people (both men and women) are to do everywhere. "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting; in like manner also, that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with propriety and moderation, not with braided hair or gold or pearls of costly clothing, but, which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." (1 Timothy 2:8-10) Should the men pray only in church? Should the women only avoid adorn themselves modestly and do good works in church? That doesn't fit well that I can tell. In context, the passage seems to apply universally to all women, in all contexts, throughout all time.
Given that the order of creation is used as justification, and given the fact that righteous women in the OT are used as examples for how women are to behave elsewhere in the NT (1 Peter 3:5-6, Hebrews 11:31), I think it's reasonable to expect that these righteous women will adhere to the restrictions laid out here. Given that Peter directly references Sarah as an example for how wives are supposed to behave in the home, it's probably most fitting to start there and see what we find.
This passage is... a problem. Specifically:
Given that Sarah was a fluke, let's look at another righteous woman in the Bible. This time we'll look at one the book of Hebrews mentions by name, Rahab.
Here also we do not have a particularly good example of silence. The "right" thing to Rahab to do in this situation is to, without arguing or complaining, bring the men to the messengers sent to her by the king. What she does instead is tell a fairly elaborate combination of lies to the messengers to not only get them to go away, but to intentionally send them on a wild goose chase in full defiance of what she has been commanded to do. In this instance, you can say "well, the man commanding her to do things was evil, she isn't obligated to listen to him", but that kind of makes the woman the judge of who is and isn't righteous enough to obey. This conflicts with the "Eve was tempted but Adam was not" argument made in 1 Timothy 2:14, since that argument undermines the reliability of women's discernment in moral matters, and yet this example sets a precedent for women to use their discernment in moral matters.
While we're on the topic of women's discernment, let's look at someone who isn't explicitly mentioned in the NT, since so far that strategy seems to be failing quite badly.
Then there's also the whole saga with Deborah and Barak. I won't quote the whole thing here since this is already getting long, but Deborah was a prophetess who was also the judge of Israel back before Israel had a kingdom (this is the same role Moses played in Exodus 18:26). I think it's obvious why this doesn't fit well with women being in silence and not having authority over men. See Judges 4 and 5 for the details. Chapter 4 also records the incident where Jael the wife of Haber not only disobeys Sisera (the male army general who resorted to her house after being thoroughly whooped by Barak a few moments before), but also kills him by putting a tent stake through his head with a hammer. Also not a good example of submission.
There are other women we could examine in the OT, but the situation isn't much better if we do. These examples are mostly either neutral in that they don't really show submission but don't show exercising of authority either (Rebekah, the woman who's son Elijah raised to life, the Shunnamite woman who's son Elisha raised to life), or they pose further complications (Huldah the prophetess, Jacob's wives, Nabal's wife Abigail). Ruth sorta does a decent job of exhibiting submission, she's about the only example I can think of off the top of my head.
Things don't get any better when looking at NT passages. Take the first missionary to the Samaritans for instance:
The only decent argument I've heard for 1 Timothy 2:12-14 only applying in the context of church is that 1 Timothy 3 seems to be male-centric in its instructions about who can be a bishop or a deacon, making it clear that these people are to be "the husband of one wife". This argument however ignores Romans 16:1, where Paul mentions "Phebe our sister, which is a deacon of the church which is at Cenchrea". If one looks at 1 Timothy 3:11 a bit more closely, one will notice that the instructions supposedly given to deacon's wives may be referring to instructions specifically for female deacons, as the word "wives" is simply "women", and the word "their" in "their wives" is not present in the original text. Since we have a documented female deacon, I don't think this interpretation is a stretch, and it undoes the argument that women are left no room for having a position of authority in the church. It flips the argument on its head and says that there's a position of authority in the church just for women.
I'm not really sure what to do with this passage at this point. It doesn't work as a universal restriction, it doesn't work as a church restriction, and it doesn't even work as a family restriction. I don't know what other sane way to interpret it, and I feel like I'm bending the text out of shape if I try to make it anything other than a universal restriction. Anyone got other ideas, or is my logic flawed somewhere?
(Final note, I do intentionally draw a distinction between "the author of 1 Timothy 2:12-14" and Paul. This is because my current hypothesis is that this passage is a forgery added to the inspired scripture Paul wrote, but I also recognize that's a somewhat weak hypothesis given that textual criticism identifies the passage as authentic for the time being. If it is Paul who wrote this, I think there will be a good explanation for it.)
Quoting from the NKJV (including verse 11 for good measure):
Let a woman learn in silence with all submission. And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence. For Adam was formed first, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression.
I think the intent of this verse is fairly clear and hard to get around without twisting the text. Women having authority over men is forbidden, as is women teaching men. Silence is encouraged in at least some contexts (which contexts isn't spelled out in full detail, but one assumes it would be in any context where authority or learning was part of the picture). Two justifications for these restrictions are given; the order of creation (man being made first and therefore being considered superior in at least these specific contexts), and the fact that the first woman was instrumental in the fall of man. It's also worth looking at the last verse of the chapter, "Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control." The author encourages the women he's talking about, that despite their being considered inferior to men in some ways, they can still be saved (AFAICT this is talking about salvation in the typical Christian sense), provided they accept their role as mothers and exhibit four key virtues. I think this is the most straightforward reading of the passage, if I'm wrong on something here please let me know.
I do not see an easy way for this verse to apply only in the context of one church. The author of this passage renders that impossible when he uses the order of creation as his argument. It makes no sense to argue that specific women in a specific area of the world should refrain from doing something, because the first woman to exist did something wrong. The only way Eve is connected to the situation at all is because she is the mother of all humans, including the women being written to, so I think it's evident that the author meant this to apply universally. It's also hard to argue that this applies only in the context of church; if you read the preceding verses of 1 Timothy 2, Paul is talking clearly about what people (both men and women) are to do everywhere. "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting; in like manner also, that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with propriety and moderation, not with braided hair or gold or pearls of costly clothing, but, which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." (1 Timothy 2:8-10) Should the men pray only in church? Should the women only avoid adorn themselves modestly and do good works in church? That doesn't fit well that I can tell. In context, the passage seems to apply universally to all women, in all contexts, throughout all time.
Given that the order of creation is used as justification, and given the fact that righteous women in the OT are used as examples for how women are to behave elsewhere in the NT (1 Peter 3:5-6, Hebrews 11:31), I think it's reasonable to expect that these righteous women will adhere to the restrictions laid out here. Given that Peter directly references Sarah as an example for how wives are supposed to behave in the home, it's probably most fitting to start there and see what we find.
And Sarah saw the son of Hagar the Egyptian, whom she had borne to Abraham, scoffing. Therefore she said to Abraham, "Cast out this bondwoman and her son; for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son, namely with Isaac." And the matter was very displeasing in Abraham's sight because of his son. But God said to Abraham, "Do not let it be displeasing in your sight because of the lad or because of your bondwoman. Whatever Sarah has said to you, listen to her voice, for in Isaac your seed shall be called. Yet I will also make a nation of the son of the bondwoman, because he is your seed." So Abraham rose early in the morning, and took bread and a skin of water; and putting it on her shoulder, he gave it and the boy to Hagar, and sent her away. Then she departed and wandered in the Wilderness of Beersheba. (Genesis 21:9-14, NKJV)
This passage is... a problem. Specifically:
- It's very hard to portray this as Sarah asking nicely. "Cast out" and "shall not" are fairly strong words to use here; it does not look like Sarah was of the opinion that these measures were optional or that Abraham should decide on his own whether he wanted to do this or not.
- It goes without saying that Sarah is not being a great example of silence here.
- Abraham is not particularly thrilled with what Sarah has told him to do. If he is going to do it, he's going to do it against his will. This further strengthens the argument that Sarah is not asking, but is attempting to exercise authority.
- God intervenes and tells Abraham to do whatever Sarah said to him. God does not tell Abraham that this is abnormal or an exception to how things should normally work (in contrast to what He says when talking to John the Baptist in Matthew 3:15), He just tells Abraham to listen. This both acknowledges that Sarah was telling him to do things, and appears to acknowledge that Sarah was within her right to do this.
- Abraham unwillingly complies with Sarah's command in all respects. Isaac goes on to become the heir, Hagar and Ishmael are evicted.
Given that Sarah was a fluke, let's look at another righteous woman in the Bible. This time we'll look at one the book of Hebrews mentions by name, Rahab.
And it was told the king of Jericho, saying, "Behold, men have come here tonight from the children of Israel to search out the country." So the king of Jericho sent to Rahab, saying, "Bring out the men who have come to you, who have entered your house, for they have come to search out all the country." Then the women took the two men and hid them. So she said, "Yes, the men came to me, but I did not know where they were from. And it happened as the gate was being shut, when it was dark, that the men went out. Where the men went I do not know; pursue them quickly, for you may overtake them." (But she had brought them up to the roof and hidden them with the stalks of flax, which she had laid in order on the roof.) Then the men pursued them by the road to the Jordan, to the fords. And as soon as those who pursued them had gone out, they shut the gate.
Here also we do not have a particularly good example of silence. The "right" thing to Rahab to do in this situation is to, without arguing or complaining, bring the men to the messengers sent to her by the king. What she does instead is tell a fairly elaborate combination of lies to the messengers to not only get them to go away, but to intentionally send them on a wild goose chase in full defiance of what she has been commanded to do. In this instance, you can say "well, the man commanding her to do things was evil, she isn't obligated to listen to him", but that kind of makes the woman the judge of who is and isn't righteous enough to obey. This conflicts with the "Eve was tempted but Adam was not" argument made in 1 Timothy 2:14, since that argument undermines the reliability of women's discernment in moral matters, and yet this example sets a precedent for women to use their discernment in moral matters.
While we're on the topic of women's discernment, let's look at someone who isn't explicitly mentioned in the NT, since so far that strategy seems to be failing quite badly.
...all the people went on after Joab, to pursue after Sheba the son of Bichri. And he went through all the tribes of Israel to Abel of Beth Maachah and all the Berites. So they were gathered together and also went after Sheba. Then they came and besieged him in Abel of Beth Maachah; and they cast up a siege mound against the city, and it stood by the rampart. And all the people who were with Joab battered the wall to throw it down. Then a wise woman cried out from the city, "Hear, hear! Please say to Joab, 'Come nearby, that I may speak with you.'" When he had come near to her, the woman said, "Are you Joab?" He answered, "I am." Then she said to him, "Hear the words of your maidservant." And he answered, "I am listening." So she spoke, saying, "They used to talk in former times, saying, 'They shall surely seek guidance at Abel,; and so they would end disputes. I am among the peaceable and faithful in Israel. You seek to destroy a city and a mother in Israel. Why would you swallow up the inheritance of the Lord?" And Joab answered and said, "Far be it, far be it from me, that I should swallow up or destroy! That is not so. But a man from the mountains of Ephraim, Sheba the son of Bichri by name, has rasied his hand against the king, against David. Deliver him only, and I will depart from the city." So the woman said to Joab, "Watch, his head will be thrown to you over the wall." Then the woman in her wisdom went to all the people. And they cut off the head of Sheba the son of Bichri, and threw it out to Joab. Then he blew a turmpet, and they withdrew from the city, every man to his tent. So Joab returned to the king at Jerusalem. (2 Samuel 20:13-22)
Finally, we have a good example of submission. It isn't silent, but silence wouldn't really work in this context, so that's understandable. Unfortunately, coupled with this, we have a good example of a woman exercising her authority over an entire city to literally chop a de-facto leader's head off and toss it to an enemy army. (Either that or else she convinced the people to do it of their own accord, which may be an issue for the "do not teach men" requirement.) The way this should have been done to comply well with 1 Timothy 2:12-14 is the woman should have suggested to a man she trusted to do the work, rather than doing it herself, but that's not what happens, and yet the text praises her for her actions and credits her with saving the city.Then there's also the whole saga with Deborah and Barak. I won't quote the whole thing here since this is already getting long, but Deborah was a prophetess who was also the judge of Israel back before Israel had a kingdom (this is the same role Moses played in Exodus 18:26). I think it's obvious why this doesn't fit well with women being in silence and not having authority over men. See Judges 4 and 5 for the details. Chapter 4 also records the incident where Jael the wife of Haber not only disobeys Sisera (the male army general who resorted to her house after being thoroughly whooped by Barak a few moments before), but also kills him by putting a tent stake through his head with a hammer. Also not a good example of submission.
There are other women we could examine in the OT, but the situation isn't much better if we do. These examples are mostly either neutral in that they don't really show submission but don't show exercising of authority either (Rebekah, the woman who's son Elijah raised to life, the Shunnamite woman who's son Elisha raised to life), or they pose further complications (Huldah the prophetess, Jacob's wives, Nabal's wife Abigail). Ruth sorta does a decent job of exhibiting submission, she's about the only example I can think of off the top of my head.
Things don't get any better when looking at NT passages. Take the first missionary to the Samaritans for instance:
...at this point His (Jesus') disciples came, and they marveled that He talked with a woman; yet no one said, "What do You seek?" or, "Why are You talking with her?" The woman then left her waterpot, went her way into the city, and said to the men, "Come, see a Man who told me all things that I ever did. Could this be the Christ?" Then they went out of the city and came to Him. (John 4:27-30)
Besides being a great example of evangelism, the Samaritan woman at the well also seems to be a good example of what not to do if you aren't supposed to teach men. She didn't teach them much, but she definitely led men to Christ, framing what she now firmly believed as a question to make it more easily accepted. This is a clever teaching technique, but as far as I can tell, it's still teaching. Priscilla (the wife of Aquila) also takes part in the forbidden practice by teaching Apollos (a man) the way of God more accurately (Acts 18:24-26), and we have the fact that the first people to announce that Jesus rose from the dead were all women. (Matthew 28:5-8) Worthy of note, Jesus reprimands His disciples for not believing the women, Cleopas, and his companion, in Mark 16:14. This is reminiscent of what God did when Abraham didn't want to listen to Sarah.The only decent argument I've heard for 1 Timothy 2:12-14 only applying in the context of church is that 1 Timothy 3 seems to be male-centric in its instructions about who can be a bishop or a deacon, making it clear that these people are to be "the husband of one wife". This argument however ignores Romans 16:1, where Paul mentions "Phebe our sister, which is a deacon of the church which is at Cenchrea". If one looks at 1 Timothy 3:11 a bit more closely, one will notice that the instructions supposedly given to deacon's wives may be referring to instructions specifically for female deacons, as the word "wives" is simply "women", and the word "their" in "their wives" is not present in the original text. Since we have a documented female deacon, I don't think this interpretation is a stretch, and it undoes the argument that women are left no room for having a position of authority in the church. It flips the argument on its head and says that there's a position of authority in the church just for women.
I'm not really sure what to do with this passage at this point. It doesn't work as a universal restriction, it doesn't work as a church restriction, and it doesn't even work as a family restriction. I don't know what other sane way to interpret it, and I feel like I'm bending the text out of shape if I try to make it anything other than a universal restriction. Anyone got other ideas, or is my logic flawed somewhere?
(Final note, I do intentionally draw a distinction between "the author of 1 Timothy 2:12-14" and Paul. This is because my current hypothesis is that this passage is a forgery added to the inspired scripture Paul wrote, but I also recognize that's a somewhat weak hypothesis given that textual criticism identifies the passage as authentic for the time being. If it is Paul who wrote this, I think there will be a good explanation for it.)